3rdAngel
Well-Known Member
Even though this is clearly off topic. I have provided some comments for your consideration below.
Why the scriptures? JESUS is the living Word of God. It is only by faith in God's Word that any of us are saved. It is quite amazing. The fall of mankind was because ADAM and EVE choose to not believe God's Word and chose the word of the serpant over the Word of God. Salvation for mankind today is through believing God's Word regardless of all obstacles and doubt. "Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God" * Romans 10:17. "For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but to us which are saved (through faith) it is the power of God" 1 Corinthians 1:18
We need faith that God is in control of his Word and it will not return unto him Void. Do you really think that creator of all things in heaven and in earth is not in control of his Word of salvation for all mankind?
If you believe Gods' Word it is written that "all scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" *2 Timothy 3:16. "For you see your calling, brothers, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called: But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God has chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty" *1 Corinthians 1:26-27. The question than arises who does God use to bring his Word to the world? Humble uneducated fisherman or the Scribes and the Pharisees? It is actually all those who believe and follow God's Word but to the wise (in their own minds) this is foolishness to such an extent that those who were wise in their own eyes in the days of JESUS and the very professed keepers of the Word of God crucified the Messiah that the very Torah and the prophets pointed to. How can this be? They had the Word of God but did not know God. The answer here is given by JESUS in his own words between him and Nicademus which addresses this very question in John 3:1-12. Please read the conversation. Truly, truly I say unto you unless a man is born again he cannot enter into the kingdom of Heaven *John 3:1-12
I think what your not considering here is that the bible is not a normal worldly history book it is the Word of God. It's application is to and for God's people. Of course History in general (not just biblical History) can be subjective depending on who is writing it. For example the History written between two warring countries will write their own version of history based on their on perspectives and political and religious views in favour of their own country and not the other. This example gives two biased views of History between two countries. Who is right and who is wrong? This is the same within religion which can lead the reader to a biased view of History depending on who is writing it and as you say it is written from the writers perspective who may or may not have religious and political bias. So the point being made here can be applied to all History and not just biblical. That is not to say that there are not any non biased views of History only that all sources of History can have bias depending on who is writing it. I believe though that God's Word is not a book of bias but a book of the truth of the Word of God and therefore truth as the scriptures teach *John 6:63 and therefore objective truth. God does not lie and the bible is not a worldly history book. It is the Word of God given to us from God.1.Are the Jewish and/or Christian scriptures objective history?
Clearly not. The OT centers around the Israelite/Jewish community, thus not other communities unless the former was affected by them. The NT centers around the early Christian community, thus not other communities unless the former was affected by them. Therefore, it is their perspectives that we read.
Thus, these are subjective, not objective, sources.
Faith of course! "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" *2 Timothy 3:16. "Without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that comes to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him" *Hebrews 11:16. "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. He that believes on him is not condemned: but he that believes not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." * John 3:16-182.If one thinks they can, please provide objectively-derived evidence that the Jewish and/or Christian scriptures are "divinely inspired".
How does one actually go about establishing "divine inspiration"? How does one actually go about determining just exactly how much may the scriptures be "divinely inspired"? Jewish and Christian theologians are all over the place on this.
Why the scriptures? JESUS is the living Word of God. It is only by faith in God's Word that any of us are saved. It is quite amazing. The fall of mankind was because ADAM and EVE choose to not believe God's Word and chose the word of the serpant over the Word of God. Salvation for mankind today is through believing God's Word regardless of all obstacles and doubt. "Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God" * Romans 10:17. "For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but to us which are saved (through faith) it is the power of God" 1 Corinthians 1:18
We need faith that God is in control of his Word and it will not return unto him Void. Do you really think that creator of all things in heaven and in earth is not in control of his Word of salvation for all mankind?
It was the so called theologians in the days of JESUS that crucified JESUS and before JESUS killed the prophets. Spiritual things are spiritually discerned *1 Corinthians 2:14. You cannot know the Word of God unless you prayerfully seek God to teach you his Word. The natural man receives not the things of the Spirit of God neither can he know them for they are foolishness unto him. God says you shall seek me and find me when you shall search for me with all of your heart *Jeremiah 29:13. God promises to be the teacher of all those who seek him *John 14:26; John 16:13; John 17:17; John 7:17; Hebrews 8:11; John 8:31-36; 1 John 2:273.If one thinks they are "divinely inspired", are all the verses as such, and what objective evidence does one have for that opinion?
Theologians note that there are what they call "variations" on the same narrative whereas thus, at least on the surface, some don't match. An example of this are the variations of the women's visit to Jesus' tomb whereas no two gospel accounts agree. However, this doesn't mean that the event in general didn't happen, only that there appears to be different takes on precisely what took place.
God has given us his mind through his Word. "Let this mind be in you that was in Christ JESUS *Philippians 2:5; John 1:1-4; 14. There is only one truth from Gods' Word. We are told that there would be many false teachers and religions prior to the 2nd coming and the end of the World as we know it. Logic is not how we are saved. We are saved by God's grace through faith and not of ourselves and not or works (logic) lest any man should boast *Ephesians 2:8-9. "For you see your calling, brothers, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called: But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God has chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty" *1 Corinthians 1:26-27. These are hard saying for those who trust in themselves and do not have faith in God and his Word.4.If one is an observant Jew or a believing Christian, can one provide objective evidence that the Bhagavad Gita cannot be "divinely inspired"?
Logically, how would one supposedly be able to do this? I would think that we would have to have the "mind" of God. I've read the Gita, and I do believe it quite inspirational in terms of faith depending on how one interprets it.
5.Can one provide objective evidence that the Bible is totally inerrant?
Did God forget how to spell? I ask this because in the oldest versions of John's Gospel there are a great many spelling errors within the Koine Greek that's used, according to Sir William Barclay, notable Anglican theologian who authored numerous excellent commentaries.
If you believe Gods' Word it is written that "all scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" *2 Timothy 3:16. "For you see your calling, brothers, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called: But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God has chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty" *1 Corinthians 1:26-27. The question than arises who does God use to bring his Word to the world? Humble uneducated fisherman or the Scribes and the Pharisees? It is actually all those who believe and follow God's Word but to the wise (in their own minds) this is foolishness to such an extent that those who were wise in their own eyes in the days of JESUS and the very professed keepers of the Word of God crucified the Messiah that the very Torah and the prophets pointed to. How can this be? They had the Word of God but did not know God. The answer here is given by JESUS in his own words between him and Nicademus which addresses this very question in John 3:1-12. Please read the conversation. Truly, truly I say unto you unless a man is born again he cannot enter into the kingdom of Heaven *John 3:1-12
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