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COL 2:16 And The Sabbath - Are You Being Told The Truth?

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Even though this is clearly off topic. I have provided some comments for your consideration below.
1.Are the Jewish and/or Christian scriptures objective history?

Clearly not. The OT centers around the Israelite/Jewish community, thus not other communities unless the former was affected by them. The NT centers around the early Christian community, thus not other communities unless the former was affected by them. Therefore, it is their perspectives that we read.
Thus, these are subjective, not objective, sources.
I think what your not considering here is that the bible is not a normal worldly history book it is the Word of God. It's application is to and for God's people. Of course History in general (not just biblical History) can be subjective depending on who is writing it. For example the History written between two warring countries will write their own version of history based on their on perspectives and political and religious views in favour of their own country and not the other. This example gives two biased views of History between two countries. Who is right and who is wrong? This is the same within religion which can lead the reader to a biased view of History depending on who is writing it and as you say it is written from the writers perspective who may or may not have religious and political bias. So the point being made here can be applied to all History and not just biblical. That is not to say that there are not any non biased views of History only that all sources of History can have bias depending on who is writing it. I believe though that God's Word is not a book of bias but a book of the truth of the Word of God and therefore truth as the scriptures teach *John 6:63 and therefore objective truth. God does not lie and the bible is not a worldly history book. It is the Word of God given to us from God.
2.If one thinks they can, please provide objectively-derived evidence that the Jewish and/or Christian scriptures are "divinely inspired".

How does one actually go about establishing "divine inspiration"? How does one actually go about determining just exactly how much may the scriptures be "divinely inspired"? Jewish and Christian theologians are all over the place on this.
Faith of course! "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" *2 Timothy 3:16. "Without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that comes to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him" *Hebrews 11:16. "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. He that believes on him is not condemned: but he that believes not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." * John 3:16-18

Why the scriptures? JESUS is the living Word of God. It is only by faith in God's Word that any of us are saved. It is quite amazing. The fall of mankind was because ADAM and EVE choose to not believe God's Word and chose the word of the serpant over the Word of God. Salvation for mankind today is through believing God's Word regardless of all obstacles and doubt. "Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God" * Romans 10:17. "For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but to us which are saved (through faith) it is the power of God" 1 Corinthians 1:18

We need faith that God is in control of his Word and it will not return unto him Void. Do you really think that creator of all things in heaven and in earth is not in control of his Word of salvation for all mankind?
3.If one thinks they are "divinely inspired", are all the verses as such, and what objective evidence does one have for that opinion?

Theologians note that there are what they call "variations" on the same narrative whereas thus, at least on the surface, some don't match. An example of this are the variations of the women's visit to Jesus' tomb whereas no two gospel accounts agree. However, this doesn't mean that the event in general didn't happen, only that there appears to be different takes on precisely what took place.
It was the so called theologians in the days of JESUS that crucified JESUS and before JESUS killed the prophets. Spiritual things are spiritually discerned *1 Corinthians 2:14. You cannot know the Word of God unless you prayerfully seek God to teach you his Word. The natural man receives not the things of the Spirit of God neither can he know them for they are foolishness unto him. God says you shall seek me and find me when you shall search for me with all of your heart *Jeremiah 29:13. God promises to be the teacher of all those who seek him *John 14:26; John 16:13; John 17:17; John 7:17; Hebrews 8:11; John 8:31-36; 1 John 2:27
4.If one is an observant Jew or a believing Christian, can one provide objective evidence that the Bhagavad Gita cannot be "divinely inspired"?

Logically, how would one supposedly be able to do this? I would think that we would have to have the "mind" of God. I've read the Gita, and I do believe it quite inspirational in terms of faith depending on how one interprets it.
God has given us his mind through his Word. "Let this mind be in you that was in Christ JESUS *Philippians 2:5; John 1:1-4; 14. There is only one truth from Gods' Word. We are told that there would be many false teachers and religions prior to the 2nd coming and the end of the World as we know it. Logic is not how we are saved. We are saved by God's grace through faith and not of ourselves and not or works (logic) lest any man should boast *Ephesians 2:8-9. "For you see your calling, brothers, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called: But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God has chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty" *1 Corinthians 1:26-27. These are hard saying for those who trust in themselves and do not have faith in God and his Word.
5.Can one provide objective evidence that the Bible is totally inerrant?

Did God forget how to spell? I ask this because in the oldest versions of John's Gospel there are a great many spelling errors within the Koine Greek that's used, according to Sir William Barclay, notable Anglican theologian who authored numerous excellent commentaries.

If you believe Gods' Word it is written that "all scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" *2 Timothy 3:16. "For you see your calling, brothers, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called: But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God has chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty" *1 Corinthians 1:26-27. The question than arises who does God use to bring his Word to the world? Humble uneducated fisherman or the Scribes and the Pharisees? It is actually all those who believe and follow God's Word but to the wise (in their own minds) this is foolishness to such an extent that those who were wise in their own eyes in the days of JESUS and the very professed keepers of the Word of God crucified the Messiah that the very Torah and the prophets pointed to. How can this be? They had the Word of God but did not know God. The answer here is given by JESUS in his own words between him and Nicademus which addresses this very question in John 3:1-12. Please read the conversation. Truly, truly I say unto you unless a man is born again he cannot enter into the kingdom of Heaven *John 3:1-12
 
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metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Even though this is clearly off topic. I have provided some comments for your consideration below.



I think what your not considering here is that the bible is not a normal worldly history book it is the Word of God. It's application is to and for God's people. Of course History in general (not just biblical History) can be subjective depending on who is writing it. For example the History written between two warring countries will write their own version of history based on their on perspectives and political and religious views in favour of their own country and not the other. This example gives two biased views of History between two countries. Who is right and who is wrong? This is the same within religion which can lead the reader to a biased view of History depending on who is writing it and as you say it is written from the writers perspective who may or may not have religious and political bias. So the point being made here can be applied to all History and not just biblical. That is not to say that there are not any non biased views of History only that all sources of History can have bias depending on who is writing it. I believe though that God's Word is not a book of bias but a book of the truth of Word of God and therefore truth as the scriptures teach *John 6:63 and therefore objective truth. God does not lie and the bible is not a worldly history book. It is the Word of God given to us from God.



Faith. "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" *2 Timothy 3:16. "Without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that comes to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him" *Hebrews 11:16.
"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved. He that believes on him is not condemned: but he that believes not is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God." * John 3:16-18

Why the scriptures? JESUS is the living Word of God. It is only by faith in God's Word that any of us are saved. It is quite amazing. The fall of mankind was because ADAM and EVE choose to not believe God's Word and chose the word of the serpant over the Word of God. Salvation for mankind today is through believing God's Word regardless of all obstacles and doubt. "Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God" * Romans 10:17. "For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but to us which are saved (through faith) it is the power of God" 1 Corinthians 1:18

We need faith that God is in control of his Word and it will not return unto him Void. Do you really think that creator of all things in heaven and in earth is not in control of his Word of salvation for all mankind? Shame on you.



It was the theologians of the day the crucified JESUS and killed the prophets. Spiritual things are spiritually discerned *1 Corinthians 2:14. You cannot know the Word of God unless you prayerfully seek God to teach you his Word. The natural man receives not the things of the Spirit of God neither can he know them for they are foolishness unto him. God says you shall seek me and find me when you shall search for me with all of your heart *Jeremiah 29:13. God promises to be the teacher of all those who seek him *John 14:26; John 16:13; John 17:17; John 7:17; Hebrews 8:11; John 8:31-36; 1 John 2:27



God has given us his mind through his Word. "Let this mind be in you that was in Christ JESUS *Philippians 2:5; John 1:1-4; 14. There is only one truth from Gods' Word. We are told that there would be many false teachers and religions prior to the 2nd coming and the end of the World as we know it. Logic is not how we are saved. We are saved by God's grace through faith and not of ourselves and not or works (logic) lest any man should boast *Ephesians 2:8-9. "For you see your calling, brothers, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called: But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God has chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty" *1 Corinthians 1:26-27. These are hard saying for those who trust in themselves and do not have faith in God and his Word.



If you believe Gods' Word it is written that "all scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" *2 Timothy 3:16. "For you see your calling, brothers, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called: But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise; and God has chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty" *1 Corinthians 1:26-27. The question than arises who does God use to bring his Word to the world? Humble uneducated fisherman or the Scribes and the Pharisees? It is actually all those who believe and follow God's Word but to the wise (in their own minds) this is foolishness to such an extent that those who were wise in their own eyes in the days of JESUS and the very professed keepers of the Word of God crucified the Messiah that the very Torah and the prophets pointed to. How can this be? They had the Word of God but did not know God. Truly, truly I say unto you unless a man is born again he cannot enter into the kingdom of Heaven *John 3:1-12
Your responses above actually avoids answering the questions and only gives us mini-sermons instead. But at least I give you some credit for actually somewhat responding to them.

Maybe go back and actually deal with what the questions ask and not just skirt around them. Just quoting verses simply is avoidance of the five questions, especially since the literalistic interpretations of scripture is what's at least in part being debated.

So, maybe go back and try again without the snow-job. I directly answered them, so maybe it's time for you to do the same.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Your responses above actually avoids answering the questions and only gives us mini-sermons instead. But at least I give you some credit for actually somewhat responding to them.

Maybe go back and actually deal with what the questions ask and not just skirt around them. Just quoting verses simply is avoidance of the five questions, especially since the literalistic interpretations of scripture is what's at least in part being debated.

So, maybe go back and try again without the snow-job. I directly answered them, so maybe it's time for you to do the same.

Well that is not true my friend! Everyone of your questions were answered from a biblical perspective for all to see. Seems you do not believe Gods' Word and have simply ignored what has been shared with you. If you disagree with what I have posted show why section by section as I have done with your posts. Ignoring God's Word does not make it disappear. Your only showing you do not believe God's Word or the scriptures shared with you.
 
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metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Well that is not true my friend! Everyone of your questions were answered from a biblical perspective for all to see. Seems you do not believe Gods' Word and have simply ignored what has been shared with you. If you disagree with what I have posted show why section by section as I have done with your posts. Ignoring God's Word does not make it disappear. Your only showing you do not believe God's Word or the scriptures shared with you.
^^ignore list^^

"Fundamentalist" bigotry is appallingly myopic and is what's so dangerous to this world today, yesterday, and undoubtedly tomorrow. I will no longer feed that monsterous approach. Hopefully you will eventually realize this, but I have not the patience to any longer deal with your disingenuous stereotyping and judgmentalism of other religious groups and their people.

Anyhow, take care, as I strongly dislike what you post because it is so condescending and narrow-minded, but I don't hate anyone, including you. Hopefully some day you'll realize the kind of dangers and hurt your position causes.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
^^ignore list^^

"Fundamentalist" bigotry is appallingly myopic and is what's so dangerous to this world today, yesterday, and undoubtedly tomorrow. I will no longer feed that monsterous approach. Hopefully you will eventually realize this, but I have not the patience to any longer deal with your disingenuous stereotyping and judgmentalism of other religious groups and their people.

Anyhow, take care, as I strongly dislike what you post because it is so condescending and narrow-minded, but I don't hate anyone, including you. Hopefully some day you'll realize the kind of dangers and hurt your position causes.

Hmm seems some people when they get challenged simply would rather start name calling and run away than to discuss the scriptures that show why their thinking might be in error rather than to face the truth. You are free to believe as you wish. I do not judge you. Thank you for the discussion to date.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Hmm seems some people when they get challenged simply would rather start name calling and run away than to discuss the scriptures that show why their thinking might be in error rather than to face the truth. You are free to believe as you wish. I do not judge you. Thank you for the discussion to date.
I don't support name calling. But it is true that you do a lot of scripture quoting of scriptures that don't support your points. This is frustrating to those who of us who are trying to have reasoned discussions with you. You also do not directly answer our own points, but rather simply reiterate your own points. That's not really carrying on a conversation -- another point of frustration for us.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
I don't support name calling. But it is true that you do a lot of scripture quoting of scriptures that don't support your points. This is frustrating to those who of us who are trying to have reasoned discussions with you. You also do not directly answer our own points, but rather simply reiterate your own points. That's not really carrying on a conversation -- another point of frustration for us.

So what you have basically said is that, in your view if you quote scripture it is correct. If someone else quotes scripture that disagrees with you than they are not. I quote scripture because I believe and follow God's Word. The scriptures I share are the result of my own prayerful bible study asking God to be by guide and teacher. I share what I learn in love and as a help. I do not judge you yet you have not proven any of the scriptures that have been shared with you do not support what is being shared with you.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
So what you have basically said is that, in your view if you quote scripture it is correct. If someone else quotes scripture that disagrees with you than they are not. I quote scripture because I believe and follow God's Word. The scriptures I share are the result of my own prayerful bible study asking God to be by guide and teacher. I share what I learn in love and as a help. I do not judge you yet you have not proven any of the scriptures that have been shared with you do not support what is being shared with you.
No, it has nothing to do with whether it is me quoting scripture or someone else. Please pay very close attention.

Sometimes someone will disagree with me, yet I will respect their points. Why? Because they have argued well. They have made their point clear, and have backed it up with arguments and evidence that are succinct, relevant, and factual.

On the other hand, there are those who just make poor arguments. This is especially frustrating when it's from compatriots on my own side, who do more damage than good -- I wish they would just be quiet. A bad argument is usually simply unclear. Sometimes it is the English that is not so good. But usually it is filled with fallacies. These are arguments that for one reason or another simply don't prove the point. In your case, one of the things that happens a lot is that you quote irrelevant information. Not every scripture pertains to the topic.

For example, your thesis is that you believe non-Jews need to observe the Sabbath. In order to prove your point, you need to do at least one of two things. 1. Show Gentiles observing the Shabbat in the Tanakh. 2. Show a command to Gentiles in the Tanakh to observe the Shabbat. So far you have not done so. You have quoted a lot of verses that really don't demonstrate that Gentiles are commanded to observe the Shabbat. You have simply ASSUMED that the ten commandments are universal, with nothing to prove it.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
No, it has nothing to do with whether it is me quoting scripture or someone else. Please pay very close attention.
I believe I have paid attention closely. All you were saying in your previous post was that because I quote you scripture it is not relevant because it disagrees with you.
Sometimes someone will disagree with me, yet I will respect their points. Why? Because they have argued well. They have made their point clear, and have backed it up with arguments and evidence that are succinct, relevant, and factual.
From what I have seen I believe this is not true in your case. You have been provided much scripture and proof texts to demonstrate evidence yet your response is simply to deny the scriptures provided as if they do not exist.
On the other hand, there are those who just make poor arguments. This is especially frustrating when it's from compatriots on my own side, who do more damage than good -- I wish they would just be quiet. A bad argument is usually simply unclear. Sometimes it is the English that is not so good. But usually it is filled with fallacies. These are arguments that for one reason or another simply don't prove the point. In your case, one of the things that happens a lot is that you quote irrelevant information. Not every scripture pertains to the topic
I believe that every scripture I have provided demonstrates my points and is relevant to the topic or I would not have posted it.
For example, your thesis is that you believe non-Jews need to observe the Sabbath. In order to prove your point, you need to do at least one of two things. 1. Show Gentiles observing the Shabbat in the Tanakh. 2. Show a command to Gentiles in the Tanakh to observe the Shabbat. So far you have not done so. You have quoted a lot of verses that really don't demonstrate that Gentiles are commanded to observe the Shabbat.
Genesis 2:1-3 show that when God rested from all his works of creation and made the Sabbath by setting apart the seventh day of the week and blessed it and made it a holy day for mankind. This was before Moses and before ISRAEL and before any JEWS.

This is also demonstrated in God's 4th commandment....

EXODUS 20:8-11 [8], REMEMBER THE SABBATH DAY, TO KEEP IT HOLY [Made Holy at creation GENESIS 2:3]. [9], Six days shall you labor, and do all your work: [10], But THE SEVENTH DAY [ Genesis 2:1-3] IS THE SABBATH OF THE LORD YOUR GOD : in it you shall not do any work, you, nor your son, nor your daughter, your manservant, nor your maidservant, nor your cattle, NOR THE FOREIGNER that is within your gates: [WHY?] [11], FOR IN SIX DAYS THE LORD MADE HEAVEN AND EARTH, THE SEA, AND ALL THAT IS IN THEM IS, AND RESTED THE SEVENTH DAY; WHEREFORE THE LORD BLESSED THE SABBATH DAY AND MADE IT HOLY. [Refering to GENESIS 2:1-3]

God's blessed and made the Sabbath as a memorial of creation for all mankind BEFORE SIN, BEFORE MOSES, BEFORE ISRAEL and BEFORE and JEW.

What the above demonstrates is that the Sabbath was made for all mankind before the JEWS even existed. God's Law was only ever given AFTER THE FALL (sin) because before the fall when the Sabbath was made, mankind was in perfect harmony with God's Law and walked with God.

You have simply ASSUMED that the ten commandments are universal, with nothing to prove it.

I would say the above proves you wrong don't you think? God's Word is for God's people who are all those who believe and follow His Word. The Sabbath was made for all mankind before sin and before ISRAEL and before any JEWS for all mankind given to Adam and Eve who are the parants of all mankind.
 
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IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
I believe I have paid attention closely. All you were saying in your previous post was that because I quote you scripture it is not relevant because it disagrees with you.
I know you think this, which is why I CLARIFIED. Now you are basically calling me a liar, despite the fact that I gave you clear examples from my past to the contrary of what you think.

I believe that every scripture I have provided demonstrates my points and is relevant to the topic or I would not have posted it.
Let me demonstrate how this is not so.

Genesis 2:1-3
Genesis 2;1-3 shows God sanctifying the Sabbath day. It does NOT include any command whatsoever for mankind or for that matter for ANYONE to observe it or keep it holy.

EXODUS 20:8-11 [8], REMEMBER THE SABBATH DAY, TO KEEP IT HOLY

This commandment was given to Israel, and you cannot argue with me over this -- at that moment Israel was the physical descendants of Jacob, and the mixed multitude which had become part of Israel by accepting the covenant (being circumcised and keeping the 613 commandments). You fit into neither of those groups, either the born Jew or the convert to a Jew.

NOR THE FOREIGNER
that is within your gates:
Are you living within the home of a Jew? Then this doesn't apply to you, no matter if you give it a special text color or not.

So no, you haven't proven me wrong.

And yes, you have quoted verses that don't apply.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
I don't support name calling.
And, just for the record, neither do I.

I mention this not because of anything you posted but because @3rdAngel had me saying something that I didn't, and I didn't catch it until your post above because (s)he's on my ignore list.

There's a difference between "bigotry" and "bigot" as you well know, whereas the latter, but not the former, labels the entire person. I simply don't do the latter.

Therefore, I guess it begs the question as to why does (s)he get hung up on the issue of "Shabbat" but not the issue of "bearing false witness", which is also in the Decalogue?

Anyhow, sorry to use you as a human "conduit", so this is my one-and-out on this.

Have a good Shabbos.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
I know you think this, which is why I CLARIFIED. Now you are basically calling me a liar, despite the fact that I gave you clear examples from my past to the contrary of what you think.
Thankyou but I did not call you any such thing.
Let me demonstrate how this is not so. Genesis 2;1-3 shows God sanctifying the Sabbath day. It does NOT include any command whatsoever for mankind or for that matter for ANYONE to observe it or keep it holy. This commandment was given to Israel, and you cannot argue with me over this -- at that moment Israel was the physical descendants of Jacob, and the mixed multitude which had become part of Israel by accepting the covenant (being circumcised and keeping the 613 commandments). You fit into neither of those groups, either the born Jew or the convert to a Jew.
Ok let's deal with the detail and examine your claims through the scriptures. Your argument here is that because no commandment was given in GENESIS 2:1-3 therefore no one was required to keep the Sabbath when it was made in GENESIS 2:1-3 and that the cammandment was only ever given to the nation of ISRAEL therefore not given to anyone else correct?

I would argue that the commandment was made to all mankind, when God "BLESSED" the seventh day and made the seventh day a "HOLY DAY" in creation for all mankind in Adam and Eve *GENESIS 2:3. Who did God bless the seventh day and make it Holy for; himself or mankind? This agrees with the reasons of God's 4th commandment given in EXODUS 20:11 which says...

EXODUS 20:8-11 [8], REMEMBER THE SABBATH DAY, TO KEEP IT HOLY [Made Holy at creation GENESIS 2:3]. [9], Six days shall you labor, and do all your work: [10], But THE SEVENTH DAY [ Genesis 2:1-3] IS THE SABBATH OF THE LORD YOUR GOD : in it you shall not do any work, you, nor your son, nor your daughter, your manservant, nor your maidservant, nor your cattle, NOR THE FOREIGNER that is within your gates: [WHY? The reason for the 4th commandment given in v11] [11], FOR IN SIX DAYS THE LORD MADE HEAVEN AND EARTH, THE SEA, AND ALL THAT IS IN THEM IS, AND RESTED THE SEVENTH DAY; WHEREFORE THE LORD BLESSED THE SABBATH DAY AND MADE IT HOLY. [Refering to GENESIS 2:1-3]

Now please pay attention and follow the scriptures that show why God's 4th commandment is given and what it points back to; God's 4th commandment starts off "REMEMBER THE SABBATH DAY, TO KEEP IT HOLY" and points back to GENESIS and creation for the reason it is given in GENESIS 2:1-3. God already BLESSED and made the seventh day a HOLY day for all mankind (ADAM and EVE the parents of all mankind) at the end of creation! The reason God's 4th commandment was given to God's people after the fall (sin) was because of GENESIS 2:3 which it says God rested, BLESSED and made HOLY the seventh day of creation v10. When did God rest, bless and make holy the seventh day of creation for all mankind? Yep you guessed it, in the creation week *GENESIS 2:3

God made the Sabbath on the seventh day of the creation week for mankind as a memorial of creation when mankind was in perfect harmony with God BEFORE SIN; BEFORE ANY LAWS WERE GIVEN because there was NO SIN; NO ISRAEL only Adam and Eve (the parants of mankind); and NO JEWS.

Now my friend when and why was the TORAH given? It was given AFTER THE FALL OF MANKIND "BECAUSE OF SIN" it was God's plan of salvation from sin for his people correct?

Now if there was "NO SIN" when the Sabbath was made for all mankind, than why do you think there needs to be a commandment which defines sin when there was no sin? Who did God make the Sabbath a holy day for? Himself or mankind?

Think it through....

If there was NO SIN there was NO LAW because mankind was in perfect harmony with God and walked with God. For through the LAW is the knowledge of sin *Romans 7:7 but God blessed the seventh day and made it holy for all mankind on the seventh day of the creation week *GENESIS 2:3.
So no, you haven't proven me wrong. And yes, you have quoted verses that don't apply.

No my friend the scriptures prove you wrong. My prayer is that you may take some time to prayerfully think the above through and that you may receive it in the Spirit that it was given (love).

May you receive Gods' Word and be blessed.
 
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3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
And, just for the record, neither do I.

I mention this not because of anything you posted but because @3rdAngel had me saying something that I didn't, and I didn't catch it until your post above because (s)he's on my ignore list.

There's a difference between "bigotry" and "bigot" as you well know, whereas the latter, but not the former, labels the entire person. I simply don't do the latter.

Therefore, I guess it begs the question as to why does (s)he get hung up on the issue of "Shabbat" but not the issue of "bearing false witness", which is also in the Decalogue?

Anyhow, sorry to use you as a human "conduit", so this is my one-and-out on this.

Have a good Shabbos.

All you have done here is make excuses for your name calling :confused:. It is God's Word your ignoring not me. You are free to believe and do as you wish. I do not judge you. We all stand before God come judgment day *JOHN 12:47-48
 
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IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Thankyou but I did not call you any such thing.

Ok let's deal with the detail and examine your claims through the scriptures. Your argument here is that because no commandment was given in GENESIS 2:1-3 therefore no one was required to keep the Sabbath when it was made in GENESIS 2:1-3 and that the cammandment was only ever given to the nation of ISRAEL therefore not given to anyone else correct?

I would argue that the commandment was made to all mankind, when God "BLESSED" the seventh day and made the seventh day a "HOLY DAY" in creation for all mankind in Adam and Eve *GENESIS 2:3. Who did God bless the seventh day and make it Holy for; himself or mankind? This agrees with the reasons of God's 4th commandment given in EXODUS 20:11 which says...

EXODUS 20:8-11 [8], REMEMBER THE SABBATH DAY, TO KEEP IT HOLY [Made Holy at creation GENESIS 2:3]. [9], Six days shall you labor, and do all your work: [10], But THE SEVENTH DAY [ Genesis 2:1-3] IS THE SABBATH OF THE LORD YOUR GOD : in it you shall not do any work, you, nor your son, nor your daughter, your manservant, nor your maidservant, nor your cattle, NOR THE FOREIGNER that is within your gates: [WHY? The reason for the 4th commandment given in v11] [11], FOR IN SIX DAYS THE LORD MADE HEAVEN AND EARTH, THE SEA, AND ALL THAT IS IN THEM IS, AND RESTED THE SEVENTH DAY; WHEREFORE THE LORD BLESSED THE SABBATH DAY AND MADE IT HOLY. [Refering to GENESIS 2:1-3]

Now please pay attention and follow the scriptures that show why God's 4th commandment is given and what it points back to; God's 4th commandment starts off "REMEMBER THE SABBATH DAY, TO KEEP IT HOLY" and points back to GENESIS and creation for the reason it is given in GENESIS 2:1-3. God already BLESSED and made the seventh day a HOLY day for all mankind (ADAM and EVE the parents of all mankind) at the end of creation! The reason God's 4th commandment was given to God's people after the fall (sin) was because of GENESIS 2:3 which it says God rested, BLESSED and made HOLY the seventh day of creation v10. When did God rest, bless and make holy the seventh day of creation for all mankind? Yep you guessed it, in the creation week *GENESIS 2:3

God made the Sabbath on the seventh day of the creation week for mankind as a memorial of creation when mankind was in perfect harmony with God BEFORE SIN; BEFORE ANY LAWS WERE GIVEN because there was NO SIN; NO ISRAEL only Adam and Eve (the parants of mankind); and NO JEWS.

Now my friend when and why was the TORAH given? It was given AFTER THE FALL OF MANKIND "BECAUSE OF SIN" it was God's plan of salvation from sin for his people correct?

Now if there was "NO SIN" when the Sabbath was made for all mankind, than why do you think there needs to be a commandment which defines sin when there was no sin? Who did God make the Sabbath a holy day for? Himself or mankind?

Think it through....

If there was NO SIN there was NO LAW because mankind was in perfect harmony with God and walked with God. For through the LAW is the knowledge of sin *Romans 7:7 but God blessed the seventh day and made it holy for all mankind on the seventh day of the creation week *GENESIS 2:3.


No my friend the scriptures prove you wrong. My prayer is that you may take some time to prayerfully think the above through and that you may receive it in the Spirit that it was given (love).

May you receive Gods' Word and be blessed.
I'm sorry, but many things can be blessed without there being any sort of obligation to treat them in a sacred way. Israel is blessed, but the Gentiles are not obligated to treat us as a sacred people, for example.

So I come back to the truth that no one was commanded to observe the Shabbat until the Torah was given to Israel.

Remember also that the command was given BECAUSE God wanted Israel to remember the Exodus. Exodus 5:11-14
11 Observe the sabbath day, to keep it holy, as the LORD thy God commanded thee.
12 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work;
13 but the seventh day is a sabbath unto the LORD thy God, in it thou shalt not do any manner of work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, nor thy man-servant, nor thy maid-servant, nor thine ox, nor thine ***, nor any of thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates; that thy man-servant and thy maid-servant may rest as well as thou.
14 And thou shalt remember that thou was a servant in the land of Egypt, and the LORD thy God brought thee out thence by a mighty hand and by an outstretched arm; therefore the LORD thy God commanded thee to keep the sabbath day.

Were your ancestors delivered from Egypt? No. That's why you have no command to keep the Sabbath.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
I'm sorry, but many things can be blessed without there being any sort of obligation to treat them in a sacred way. Israel is blessed, but the Gentiles are not obligated to treat us as a sacred people, for example.

So I come back to the truth that no one was commanded to observe the Shabbat until the Torah was given to Israel.

Remember also that the command was given BECAUSE God wanted Israel to remember the Exodus. Exodus 5:11-14
11 Observe the sabbath day, to keep it holy, as the LORD thy God commanded thee.
12 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work;
13 but the seventh day is a sabbath unto the LORD thy God, in it thou shalt not do any manner of work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, nor thy man-servant, nor thy maid-servant, nor thine ox, nor thine ***, nor any of thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates; that thy man-servant and thy maid-servant may rest as well as thou.
14 And thou shalt remember that thou was a servant in the land of Egypt, and the LORD thy God brought thee out thence by a mighty hand and by an outstretched arm; therefore the LORD thy God commanded thee to keep the sabbath day.

Were your ancestors delivered from Egypt? No. That's why you have no command to keep the Sabbath.

Hello Indigo, please address post # 612 linked you are quoting from. You simply did not read it or ignored it and neither have you addressed anything in it. No one has ever argued that God's 10 commandments were not given to ISRAEL after the fall of mankind. So your argument here is a mute point and not relevant to the post and the scriptures you are quoting from that shows that the Sabbath was made and given to mankind before the fall when there was no sin and no law. I can understand why you wish to ignore the linked post provided above and the scriptures provided in it. It shows why you are in error. You haven't thought your argument through very well Indigo. Neither have you addressed anything in the post and scriptures provided to you that show why you are in error. If I have only shared God's Word with you here why do you not believe it?
 
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IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Hello Indigo, please address post # 612 linked you are quoting from. You simply did not read it or ignored it and neither have you addressed anything in it. No one has ever argued that God's 10 commandments were not given to ISRAEL after the fall of mankind. So your argument here is a mute point and not relevant to the post and the scriptures you are quoting from that shows that the Sabbath was made and given to mankind before the fall when there was no sin and no law. I can understand why you wish to ignore the linked post provided above and the scriptures provided in it. It shows why you are in error. You haven't thought your argument through very well Indigo. Neither have you addressed anything in the post and scriptures provided to you that show why you are in error.
Sometimes we've been around the ferris wheel a few times already and there is no sense in revisiting what has already been said. You are simply repeating yourself and I don't want to simply repeat myself.

Other times, there is an issue in a post that is so glaring that everything else is nothing by comparison. In such a case i'll drop the rest so that they don't detract from the importance of the one issue.

I notice you didn't respond to my post.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Sometimes we've been around the ferris wheel a few times already and there is no sense in revisiting what has already been said. You are simply repeating yourself and I don't want to simply repeat myself.
Hmm not really. I have responded to all of your posts. What is it that you believe I have not responded to? On the other hand you have not addressed anything in post # 612 so how can you be around the ferris wheel when you have simply ignored the posts and the scriptures shared with you? I am repeating myself here because you are yet to address this post and the scrptures shared in it that show why you are in error and have simply ignored it.
Other times, there is an issue in a post that is so glaring that everything else is nothing by comparison. In such a case i'll drop the rest so that they don't detract from the importance of the one issue. I notice you didn't respond to my post.
Your whole post and premise was address through the scriptures in post # 612 while your response was to simply ignore it and to start talking about things no one was in disagreement about. This only shows you what has been shared with you is true as it is God's Word and you cannot deny it so you avoid responding to it and seek to talk about things no one is talking about.

You do not have to answer the linked post and scriptures provided to you if you do not wish to, just say so. I believe deep down inside, you know what I have shared with you is true if you do not harden your heart and hear God's Word. At least I hope it gives you something to think and pray about.

May you receive God's Word and be blessed.
 
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IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Hmm not really. I have responded to all of your posts. What is it that you believe I have not responded to?
YOu have not adequately wrestled with my points that no commandment was given in Genesis, and that at Sinai the commandment was give exclusively to Israel. You just haven't. If you had, you wouldn't continue to provide those two proof texts.

And honestly, those are the only two proof texts that apply to the subject matter from your perspective. All the other verses are simply irrelevant.

Also, you keep trying to go off topic and talk about your ideas about what the "true" Israel is. I'm not interested in talking to you about that. I find that whole topic deeply insulting and dangerous. It has no relationship to whether Gentiles should keep the Shabbat.


On the other hand you have not addressed anything in post # 612 so how can you be around the ferris wheel when you have simply ignored the posts and the scriptures shared with you?
You pretty much spent the bulk of your post arguing the Genesis text and the Exodus text and I did reply to those.

You made a further argument that there was no need for a law before the fall of mankind. I didn't bother replying because it was such an incredibly weak argument that it didn't merit a reply. God forbade them the tree of the knowledge of good and evil before what Christians call the fall. Obviously there was room in that state for instructions.

And there was plenty of room elsewhere after the Garden. But you don't hear God instructing Adam or Noah or Shem or anyone who is Gentile to keep the Sabbath. No one. UNTIL he instructs Israel. That supports MY point, not yours.

I am repeating myself here because you are yet to address this post and the scrptures shared in it that show why you are in error and have simply ignored it.

Your whole post and premise was address through the scriptures in post # 612 while your response was to simply ignore it and to start talking about things no one was in disagreement about. This only shows you what has been shared with you is true as it is God's Word and you cannot deny it so you avoid responding to it and seek to talk about things no one is talking about.

You do not have to answer the linked post and scriptures provided to you if you do not wish to, just say so. I believe deep down inside, you know what I have shared with you is true if you do not harden your heart and hear God's Word. At least I hope it gives you something to think and pray about.

May you receive God's Word and be blessed.[/QUOTE]
 

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
YOu have not adequately wrestled with my points that no commandment was given in Genesis, and that at Sinai the commandment was give exclusively to Israel. You just haven't. If you had, you wouldn't continue to provide those two proof texts.

And honestly, those are the only two proof texts that apply to the subject matter from your perspective. All the other verses are simply irrelevant.

Also, you keep trying to go off topic and talk about your ideas about what the "true" Israel is. I'm not interested in talking to you about that. I find that whole topic deeply insulting and dangerous. It has no relationship to whether Gentiles should keep the Shabbat.


You pretty much spent the bulk of your post arguing the Genesis text and the Exodus text and I did reply to those.

You made a further argument that there was no need for a law before the fall of mankind. I didn't bother replying because it was such an incredibly weak argument that it didn't merit a reply. God forbade them the tree of the knowledge of good and evil before what Christians call the fall. Obviously there was room in that state for instructions.

And there was plenty of room elsewhere after the Garden. But you don't hear God instructing Adam or Noah or Shem or anyone who is Gentile to keep the Sabbath. No one. UNTIL he instructs Israel. That supports MY point, not yours.

I am repeating myself here because you are yet to address this post and the scrptures shared in it that show why you are in error and have simply ignored it.

Your whole post and premise was address through the scriptures in post # 612 while your response was to simply ignore it and to start talking about things no one was in disagreement about. This only shows you what has been shared with you is true as it is God's Word and you cannot deny it so you avoid responding to it and seek to talk about things no one is talking about.

You do not have to answer the linked post and scriptures provided to you if you do not wish to, just say so. I believe deep down inside, you know what I have shared with you is true if you do not harden your heart and hear God's Word. At least I hope it gives you something to think and pray about.

May you receive God's Word and be blessed.
[/QUOTE]
If the commandments were only for Israel, Why would Jesus tell his followers to "keep the commandments"? Perhaps the "new covanent" extends the same rights and responsibilities to the non-Jews that the "old covanet" gave to the Jews?
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
YOu have not adequately wrestled with my points that no commandment was given in Genesis, and that at Sinai the commandment was give exclusively to Israel. You just haven't. If you had, you wouldn't continue to provide those two proof texts.

Now now, Indigo, you keep changing the goal posts. (You may want to fix up your previous post as you have my quote mixed into yours with a formatting error). You make claims saying I have not addressed some of the content in your posts. I believe I have addressed everything you have posted and I asked you politely what is it you believe I have not addressed? Now you say in this post that I did not address your posts adequately? Seriously? You say I have not addressed your point that no commandment was given in GENESIS. This is only evidence that you have not read my posts and the scriptures quoted as this claim was directly answered in post # 612 which you have obviosly not read, ignored or did not understand. You did not read it did you.

And honestly, those are the only two proof texts that apply to the subject matter from your perspective. All the other verses are simply irrelevant. Also, you keep trying to go off topic and talk about your ideas about what the "true" Israel is. I'm not interested in talking to you about that. I find that whole topic deeply insulting and dangerous. It has no relationship to whether Gentiles should keep the Shabbat.

If you read post # 612 and understood what it was saying you would know that the focus of this post was examining your earlier post and claims looking at your premise that God's 4th commandment was not given until Mt Sinai. Before the written Word of God there was the spoken Word of God. Your claim was proven to be a false claim because the Sabbath was made before SIN as part of the finished work of creation for all mankind when there was no sin no law no Israel and no Jew. This is proven in GENESIS 2:1-3 and EXODUS 20:8-11. What I find amusing is that you do not even know what your own scriptures teach. Yet it does not surprise me as your fathers did not believe and follow God's Word either and even crucified the promised Messiah in the very Word of God they held so precious because they did not understand what it said.

You pretty much spent the bulk of your post arguing the Genesis text and the Exodus text and I did reply to those.

Really? I must have been away. Can you please post me the link or the post # as I am yet to see it

You made a further argument that there was no need for a law before the fall of mankind. I didn't bother replying because it was such an incredibly weak argument that it didn't merit a reply.

If mankind (Adam and Eve) was walking in perfect harmony with God having no knowledge of sin why would they need to have a law to walk with God when it was what they were doing and they had no knowledge of what sin was? Was the law given before sin or after sin? Why was the Torah given? As you can see it is your own argument that is weak there is no need for law if there is no sin or knowledge it what sin is and it is natural to walk with God. You lack of reply is because you know this to be true and you have no argument. The Sabbath was given before sin to mankind when there was no law, no Jew and no Israel because there was no sin when God blessed the seventh day and made it a Holy day *GENESIS 2:1-3 and EXODUS 20:8-11 only proves this as it shows why it is given.

God forbade them the tree of the knowledge of good and evil before what Christians call the fall. Obviously there was room in that state for instructions.

Indeed this was the test for mankind for which they failed. That said before the fall they walked in perfect harmony with God and talked directly with God because they had no knowledge of sin or good and evil. It was not until after the fall that mankind had knowledge of good and evil and was driven out from the Garden of Eden *GENESIS 3:22-24. Once again before the fall (sin) the Sabbath was given before sin to mankind in Adam and Eve when there was no law, no Jew and no Israel because there was no sin when God blessed the seventh day and made it a Holy day *GENESIS 2:1-3 and EXODUS 20:8-11 only proves this as it shows why it is given.

And there was plenty of room elsewhere after the Garden. But you don't hear God instructing Adam or Noah or Shem or anyone who is Gentile to keep the Sabbath. No one. UNTIL he instructs Israel. That supports MY point, not yours.

It does not support any of your points at all. Your argument is an argument in silence. For example, where is the scripture that says God's people did not know God's Word or his law before Sinia? Yet I believe I can show you the scriptures that before the written Word of God there was the spoken Word of God and God's people have always had God's laws after the fall before Mt Sinai.

Yet before the fall (sin) we know that mankind was made on the 6th day of the creation week and God made the Sabbath day on the 7th day of creation week for all mankind as demonstrated in GENESIS 2:1-3 and EXODUS 20:8-11 before sin to mankind in Adam and Eve when there was no law, no Jew and no Israel because there was no sin when God blessed the seventh day and made it a Holy day *GENESIS 2:1-3 and EXODUS 20:8-11 only proves this as it shows why it is given..

As posted earlier you have yet to address post # 612 and you do not have to if you do not want to, just say so. I think you know deep down inside I am telling you the truth and that I have only provided you with God's Word that are not my words but God's. You have only been denying God's Word with yours or will you address the scriptures in the posts that have only been sent in love and as a help to you.

May you receive God's Word and be blessed.
 
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