Then we agreeYes, context. Exactly. “One”.
It should be so obvious.
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Then we agreeYes, context. Exactly. “One”.
It should be so obvious.
David also wrote in prophesy about the Messiah....so compare these two translations where only one uses God’s name.....
Psalm 110:1-2...
“Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool. Jehovah will send forth the rod of thy strength out of Zion: Rule thou in the midst of thine enemies.” (ASV)
“The Lord says to my Lord: “ Sit at My right hand Until I make Your enemies a footstool for Your feet.” The Lord will stretch forth Your strong scepter from Zion, saying, “ Rule in the midst of Your enemies.” (NASB)
Can you see where confusion starts when translators remove God’s name and substitute a title?...one that is used for others in the scriptures....? There are two “Lords” but only one is Jehovah.
Who is David’s “Lord”? Jehovah is speaking to David’s “Lord” telling him to wait “at his right hand” (a position of second in command) until he makes his enemies his footstool. It is Jehovah who provides the strength for his Messiah to rule “in the midst of his enemies”.....which he is doing right now.
Titles are not names. Jesus is “Lord” but he is not Jehovah.
Yes, context. Exactly. “One”. (Not three.)In different applications, yes, but not in Deut - context.
Ken, Jesus is all these things, because God made him such!Although he did speak to the whole of the congregation, in this verse he isn't. Having had a course in one God vs Godhead (Father, The Word, The Holy Spirit) they indeed are one and yet separate. There is one Father, one Lord Jesus Christ (although Lord God the Father is also Lord) back to oneness - you just can't separate them
Again, you are equating The Word before manifesting in the flesh as if when manifested in the flesh nothing change. An error. Even the Pharisees said that Jesus made himself equal with God and wanted to kill him for it. And when in Isaiah it said "my Spirit" it can't be any clearer. And through it all Jesus said "don't blaspheme the Holy Spirit" - making the Holy Spirit quite equal to him and the Father. The Comforter is the Father, The Son and the Holy Spirit. Life and light are God - Jesus is the life and the light to the world. God is our salvation - Jesus is our salvation. God Shalom is our peace - Jesus is our peace. God is our righteousness, Jesus is our righteousness.
How do you separate it all?
He is more than just the application of his power, He is our teacher, our comforter, our guide. He leads us, talks to us and shows us things to come.
How can he be one entity? How can God be everywhere at once? How can God hear all the prayers? How can God be on the throne and yet be on earth?
I think you have placed God in a small box.
If anyone studied deeply the Bible, one would see that only God could redeem mankind. An angel could not take on the sins of the world and still remain solvent enough to pull mankind out of the pollution of sin.
That is a matter of perspective. One could say that you are presenting a different gospel.
But I remain in peace with you.
Ken, Jesus is all these things, because God made him such!
Did Jesus not say, “all authority has been given me”? Matthew 28:18.
Why?
If he were God, nothing would need to be given to him.
Well... we will have to agree to disagree..I’m sorry, Ken....I edited my post, and reposted, to be clearer. And I removed my snide comment, I apologize.
Yes, context. Exactly. “One”. (Not three.)
Plus, Deut. 6:4 specifically states God’s Divine Name, Yahweh / Jehovah. It doesn’t just say Elohim.
Jehovah, according to Trinitarian doctrine, is ‘separate’ from Jesus.
So understanding Elohim as meaning superlative, fits this context.
In the beginning was the Word, the Word was with God, the Word WAS GodKen, Jesus is all these things, because God made him such!
Did Jesus not say, “all authority has been given me”? Matthew 28:18.
Why?
If he were God, nothing would need to be given to him.
In the beginning was the Word, the Word was with God, the Word WAS God
Hello, Misty. Thanks for raising this important question.
I'm not out to add, or take away, from God's inspired word. I simply want to understand the meaning that God intended for His own words.
I believe God reveals Himself to mankind. How does the LORD do this if not through his Word, his Son? [Rev. 19:13]
When the Spirit of God came to dwell in the body of Jesus [at baptism], was God coming to earth? This is the question that challenges all who read the New Testament. How would you answer it?
Hello, Misty. Thanks for raising this important question.
I'm not out to add, or take away, from God's inspired word. I simply want to understand the meaning that God intended for His own words.
I believe God reveals Himself to mankind. How does the LORD do this if not through his Word, his Son? [Rev. 19:13]
When the Spirit of God came to dwell in the body of Jesus [at baptism], was God coming to earth? This is the question that challenges all who read the New Testament. How would you answer it?
Koine Greek did not have indefinite articles in their language — “a” and “an” didn’t exist in their parts of speech — so they need to be added to languages that do use them.In the beginning was the Word, the Word was with God, the Word WAS God
Although he did speak to the whole of the congregation, in this verse he isn't.
Having had a course in one God vs Godhead (Father, The Word, The Holy Spirit) they indeed are one and yet separate. There is one Father, one Lord Jesus Christ (although Lord God the Father is also Lord) back to oneness - you just can't separate them.
Again, you are equating The Word before manifesting in the flesh as if when manifested in the flesh nothing change. An error.
You do understand that they wanted to bring a charge of blasphemy against him so that they had grounds to kill him....? They were not averse to supplying false witnesses to get their way either....Even the Pharisees said that Jesus made himself equal with God and wanted to kill him for it.
And when in Isaiah it said "my Spirit" it can't be any clearer.
And through it all Jesus said "don't blaspheme the Holy Spirit" - making the Holy Spirit quite equal to him and the Father.
The Comforter is the Father, The Son and the Holy Spirit. Life and light are God - Jesus is the life and the light to the world. God is our salvation - Jesus is our salvation. God Shalom is our peace - Jesus is our peace. God is our righteousness, Jesus is our righteousness.
How do you separate it all?
He is more than just the application of his power, He is our teacher, our comforter, our guide. He leads us, talks to us and shows us things to come.
How can he be one entity? How can God be everywhere at once? How can God hear all the prayers? How can God be on the throne and yet be on earth?
I think you have placed God in a small box.
If anyone studied deeply the Bible, one would see that only God could redeem mankind. An angel could not take on the sins of the world and still remain solvent enough to pull mankind out of the pollution of sin.
That is a matter of perspective. One could say that you are presenting a different gospel.
But I remain in peace with you.
We have to discern the 'wheat' from the 'weeds'.
From your first question : “I believe God reveals Himself to mankind. How does the LORD do this if not through his Word, his Son? [Rev. 19:13]”
2 Tim 3:16 “All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, 17 so that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.” (All Scripture would be both OT and NT, and the OT had already been written down Before Jesus earthly birth.)
2 Peter 1: 21 For prophecy was at no time brought by man’s will, but men spoke from God as they were moved by holy spirit. ( Therefore,,The Holy Spirit, sent by GOD, moved men to speek and write Bible Prophecy)
John 14: 26 “But the helper, the holy spirit, which the Father will send in my name, that one will teach you all things and bring back to your minds all the things I told you. ( Jesus here states that the Father will send the Holy Spirit in Jesus name to teach and bring back to the disciples minds all that Jesus had told them……. Jesus did not say that he, himself would send the Holy Spirit)------------So the answer to your question, according to Scripture, is God’s Holy Spirt
Regarding your second question: No where have I found within the Holy Scriptures, ‘that the Spirit of God came to dwell in the body of Jesus.’
Luke 3:22 and the holy spirit in bodily form like a dove came down upon him, and a voice came out of heaven: “You are my Son, the beloved; I have approved you.”
John 1:32 John also bore witness, saying: “I viewed the spirit coming down as a dove out of heaven, and it remained upon him. 33 Even I did not know him, but the very One who sent me to baptize in water said to me: ‘Whoever it is upon whom you see the spirit coming down and remaining, this is the one who baptizes in holy spirit.’ 34 And I have seen it, and I have given witness that this one is the Son of God.”
Matt 3:16 After being baptized, Jesus immediately came up from the water; and look! the heavens were opened up, and he saw God’s spirit descending like a dove and coming upon him.
Luke 4:18 Jehovah’s spirit is upon me, because he anointed me to declare good news to the poor. He sent me to proclaim liberty to the captives and a recovery of sight to the blind, to send the crushed ones away free,
Isa 11:2 And the spirit of Jehovah will settle upon him, The spirit of wisdom and of understanding, The spirit of counsel and of mightiness, The spirit of knowledge and of the fear of Jehovah.
The word upon has a largely different meaning than the words, into, or inside of, so possibly this will assist you in understanding the ‘meaning that God intended for His own words’ .
True Hickey Cowboy, but for every interpretation that you give there are three (Greek Scholars) who would disagree. And the very position of "a god" then denotes polygons which I am definitely not in agreement with. All other "gods" are false gods including the god of this world Satan:Koine Greek did not have indefinite articles in their language — “a” and “an” didn’t exist in their parts of speech — so they need to be added to languages that do use them.
And actually, it’s not “...and the word was the god”; or even “....and the word was god”. It’s “...and god was the word.”
Does that matter? You bet!.....
According to highly respected scholar and Catholic priest John L. McKenzie (a Trinitarian), wrote regarding John 1:1 in his 'Dictionary of the Bible'...."Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Italics & bold type are mine. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (1965, NY), p. 317.
He is not alone....
In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 andJohn 1:1,” Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·osʹin its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, “The Word was God,” do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, The Jerusalem Bible and King James both refer to Judas Iscariot as “a devil,” and at John 9:17, they describe Jesus as “a prophet.”
Because of this Greek semantics issue, we have examples of other versions’ translations....
▪ 1808: "and the Word was a god" – Thomas Belsham The New Testament, in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London.
▪ 1822: "and the Word was a god" – The New Testament in Greek and English (A. Kneeland, 1822.)
▪ 1829: "and the Word was a god" – The Monotessaron; or, The Gospel History According to the Four Evangelists (J. S. Thompson, 1829)
▪ 1863: "and the Word was a god" – A Literal Translation of the New Testament (Herman Heinfetter [Pseudonym of Frederick Parker], 1863)
▪ 1864: "the LOGOS was God, This was in the Beginning with God" – A New Emphatic Version (right hand column)
▪ 1864: "and a god was the Word" – The Emphatic Diaglott by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London (left hand column interlinear reading)
▪ 1867: "In the beginning was the gospel preached through the Son. And the gospel was the word, and the word was with the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was of God" – The Joseph Smith Translation of the Bible
▪ 1879: "and the Word was a god" – Das Evangelium nach Johannes (J. Becker, 1979)
▪ 1885: "and the Word was a god" – Concise Commentary on The Holy Bible (R. Young, 1885)
▪ 1911: "and the Word was a god" – The Coptic Version of the N.T. (G. W. Horner, 1911)
▪ 1935: "and the Word was divine" – The Bible: An American Translation, by John M. P. Smith and Edgar J. Goodspeed, Chicago
▪ 1955: "so the Word was divine" – The Authentic New Testament, by Hugh J. Schonfield, Aberdeen.
▪ 1956: "In the beginning the Word was existing. And the Word was in fellowship with God the Father. And the Word was as to His essence absolute deity" – The Wuest Expanded Translation[15]
▪ 1958: "and the Word was a god" – The New Testament of Our Lord and Saviour Jesus Anointed (J. L. Tomanec, 1958)
▪ 1966, 2001: "...and he was the same as God" – The Good News Bible
▪ 1970, 1989: "...and what God was, the Word was" – The Revised English Bible
▪ 1975 "and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word" – Das Evangelium nach Johnnes, by Siegfried Schulz, Göttingen, Germany
▪ 1975: "and the Word was a god" – Das Evangelium nach Johannes (S. Schulz, 1975);
▪ 1978: "and godlike sort was the Logos" – Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider, Berlin
@KenS .....
Deeje said something pretty important here:
If I may ask (and you don’t have to answer, I don’t want to put you on the spot), how do you think one would differentiate between them?
Jesus said there was a way....
Later, my cousin.
Yes you can, because they are never confused in the scriptures at all. Jesus himself always separates them. Never is he ever placed on equal footing with his God and Father, who is still his God even in heaven....this is well after his resurrection and return to heaven.....so can you explain that? (Revelation 3:12)
What error? Was Jesus in heaven "with" God before the Father "sent" him on his rescue mission? Yes he was.
Did that require a transformation from spirit being to human being? Yes it did.
Did God need to become a human to redeem the human race? No he did not.
You could say the elevated the Holy Spirit above the Father and the Word.No equality there at all. You can blaspheme the son and still be forgiven....but to blaspheme the very power of God when one has witnessed it, is to insult him to his core. This earned the Pharisees of Jesus' day a place in "gehenna"....they ascribed Jesus' miracles (a product of the holy spirit) to the devil. (Matthew 12:24-29)
Easy......the Bible never amalgamated them in the first place.....the Catholic church introduced the trinity into its doctrines over 300 years after Jesus died. He never taught it....the Jews never believed in it. Monotheism demand that there is only one God....not a freak with three heads who can be in three places at once talking to each other.... How can there be three 'gods' and not be polytheism?
An angel did take on the sins of the world because all that angel needed to be was 100% human, but not a sinful son of Adam. He came from heaven to be born as a human in David's family line...but he could not have a human father and still be sinless. He was Jewish, born of a Jewish mother, and sinless, born of God by means of his spirit.
I totally accept that the Spirit of the Lord was upon Jesus. It was careless of me to give the impression that the Spirit could not depart. In fact, having given this some thought, it was imperative that the Spirit should be 'upon' Jesus at this point in his ministry. When crucified, and bearing the sins of mankind, the Spirit departed from Jesus. That's why he cried, My God , my God, why has thou forsaken me?
I accept all the passages of scripture that you quote, but the conclusions you reach do not tell the whole truth.
In John 15:26,27 it says, 'But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceeded from the Father, he shall testify of me:
And ye also shall bear witness, because ye have been with me from the beginning.'
The Father is Holy Spirit, the Word (Christ) is Holy Spirit, and the Comforter is Holy Spirit. If I repent and believe on Jesus Christ as the Son of God I receive the Holy Spirit, and I receive it from Jesus Christ. Where does Jesus Christ get the Spirit from? From the Father. As it says in Ephesians 4:6, 'One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. But unto every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ.'
If a person bypasses Christ in seeking God, they cannot be called a Christian. Christ clearly stated, 'I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me' [John 14:6]. Thomas saw the risen Jesus Christ and exclaimed, 'My Lord and my God' [John 20:28].
Isaiah 43:11. says 'I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour'. Hosea 13:4 confirms this important truth in the words, 'Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no God but me: for there is no saviour beside me'. In Luke 2:11 we learn from the mouth of the angel of the Lord these good tidings; 'For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord'.
If you tell me that Jesus Christ was a representative of God, my retort will be that he is not, therefore, God; and according to the prophet Isaiah, not a saviour.
Jehovah is identified as the principal Savior, the only Source of deliverance. (Isa 43:11; 45:21) He was the Savior and Deliverer of Israel, time and again. (Ps 106:8, 10, 21; Isa 43:3; 45:15; Jer 14:8) He saved not only the nation but also individuals who served him. (2Sa 22:1-3)
Often his salvation was through men raised up by him as saviors: Ne 9:27 “ For this you gave them into the hand of their adversaries, who kept causing them distress. But they would cry out to you in the time of their distress, and you would hear from the heavens; and because of your great mercy, you would give them saviors to rescue them out of the hand of their adversaries.”…….. During the period of the Judges, these special saviors were divinely selected and empowered to deliver Israel from foreign oppression. (Jg 2:16; 3:9, 15) While the judge lived, he served to keep Israel in the right way, and this brought them relief from their enemies. (Jg 2:18) When Jesus was on earth, Jehovah was his Savior, supporting and strengthening him to maintain integrity through his strenuous trials.— Heb 5:7 “During his life on earth, Christ offered up supplications and also petitions, with strong outcries and tears, to the One who was able to save him out of death, and he was favorably heard for his godly fear.” ,,, Who do you believe Jesus was praying to with strong outcries and tears??? And who exactly do you believe heard him favorably??? If Jesus is in fact GOD, then this scripture along with many others, does cause Jesus to sound like a vane schizophrenic, and it’s truly no wonder why so very many people have so very little faith. Ps 28:8. “Jehovah is a strength for his people;He is a stronghold, bringing grand salvation to his anointed one.” How does one bring something to oneself, that one already has???
Along with his role as Savior, Jehovah is also the “Repurchaser.” (Isa 49:26; 60:16) In the past he redeemed his people Israel from captivity. In delivering Christians from sin’s bondage, he does the repurchasing through his Son Jesus Christ (1Jo 4:14), Jehovah’s provision for salvation, who is therefore exalted as “Chief Agent and Savior.” (Ac 5:31) Accordingly, Jesus Christ can rightly be called “our Savior,” even though he performs the salvation as the agent of Jehovah. (Tit 1:4; 2Pe 1:11) The name Jesus, given to God’s Son by angelic direction, means “Jehovah Is Salvation,” for, said the angel, “he will save his people from their sins.” (Mt 1:21; Lu 1:31) This name points out that Jehovah is the Source of salvation, accomplished through Jesus. For this reason we find the Father and the Son spoken of together in connection with salvation.—Tit 2:11-13 “For the undeserved kindness of God has been manifested, bringing salvation to all sorts of people. 12 It trains us to reject ungodliness and worldly desires and to live with soundness of mind and righteousness and godly devotion amid this present system of things, 13 while we wait for the happy hope and glorious manifestation of the great God and of our Savior, Jesus Christ, This does not say; while we wait for the happy hope and glorious manifestation of the great God our Savior Jesus Christ, rather it states the ‘the great God AND our Savior Jesus Christ……. Titus 3:4-6 “ However, when the kindness of our Savior, God, and his love for mankind were manifested 5 (not because of any righteous works we had done, but because of his own mercy), he saved us by means of the bath that brought us to life and by making us new by holy spirit. 6 He poured this spirit out richly on us through Jesus Christ our Savior,
Salvation is provided by Jehovah through Jesus Christ for “all sorts of men.” (1Ti 4:10) He saves them from sin and death (Ro 8:2), from Babylon the Great (Re 18:2, 4), from this world under Satan’s control (Joh 17:16; Col 1:13), and from destruction and everlasting death (Re 7:14-17; 21:3, 4). “A great crowd” is shown at Revelation 7:9, 10attributing salvation to God and to the Lamb.
The ransom sacrifice is the basis for salvation, and as King and everlasting High Priest, Christ Jesus has the authority and power “to save completely those who are approaching God through him.” (Heb 7:23-25; Re 19:16) He is “a savior of this body,” the congregation of his anointed followers, and also of all who exercise faith in him.—Eph 5:23; 1Jo 4:14; Joh 3:16, 17…….. Our Christ Jesus has certainly more than earned his place as King and everlasting High Priest from Our Father, Our Creator, The Almighty GOD Jehovah. Throughout the entire Holy Scriptures, there is absolutely no mention of this pagan belief ‘Trinity Doctrine’ We are however warned repeatedly throughout the Scriptures regarding ‘unbelievers’, which are in fact ‘pagans’………… So again I ask which is wiser?? To make the clear statements of scripture conform to our imperfect human conceptions of what may be implied??? OR To believe the clear teaching of our Creator’s Inspired Scripture, and accept that these perceived implications might be due to our misunderstanding of scripture or completely in error??? Each of us will render an account for ourselves to God. Rom 14:12 , and each of us must carry our own load Gal 6:5