In that verse, there is a phrase, עֲשֶׂ֖רֶת הַדְּבָרִֽים, aseret had'varim. The root d-v-r is "thing" or "saying/word." The word דברים is used over 30 times in the 5 books of Moses. Are you saying that it means "commandments" in each of those cases? Strangely, most, if not all of the translations that have it as "commandments" at the end of the verse have it as "words" in the same verse, slightly earlier (and elsewhere, cf Gen 11:1).
What in its root refers to "command" and how would that work in cases such as Ex. 4:10? If you are referring to Strong's 1696/97 (though I don't know if you consider Strong to be an authority worth relying on) then he seems to point to the tz-v-h root (6680, through to 4687) as the word for a divine commandment.
If the issue has to do with the introductory prefix הַ, that word is used 30 other times textually and as early as Genesis 15:1 but doesn't seem to mean "commandments" there (also, cf Gen 44:6).
You had also said that "only one of the three is called the "Ten Commandments" in the text itself" and then you cited Ex 34. How does that relate to Deut 4:12 which also uses the phrase to refer to the 10 statements?