Faust said:
I'm afraid you don't get what I'm saying. Matthew and Luke tried to make a connection to the prophesy in Isaiah by giving the lineage of Jesus but they named Joseph as his father, therefore Jesus according to the Bible was fathered by a man.
I understand perfectly what you are saying. And you are partially correct. Jesus' legal father was Joseph. But you are wrong in that Joseph was also the bioligical father of Jesus. Jesus was concieved by the Holy Spirit (Matthew 1:18, 20). This all happened, it says, before Joseph an mary had consumated their marriage.
You seem to be focusing on Jesus' humanity as proof of his not being God. Now, don't get me wrong. Jesus' humanity was a very important part of who he was. If He were not ALL man, then he would not have suffered as a man, and could not relate to us, nor us to Him. But there are sever indications that Jesus was God. Here they are:
1. John 1:1 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God , and the word was God.
This passage has no doubt been discussed here on this thread before, but I will say once again that this passage refers to Jesus being the Word and how Jesus was God, was with God, and (in the following verses) came to earth and was flesh.
2. John 10:33 - The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.
This verse shows that those around Jesus thought that He was proclaiming to be God. The jews themselves thought he was teaching it. And what's more interesting is the fact that Jesus doesn't deny it.
3. Mark 2:7 - "why does this man speak that way? He is blaspheming; who can forgive sins but God alone?"
Here Jesus had just told the paralytic that his sins were forgiven. The people watching this assume that since Jesus is claimning to forgive sins, then He must be claiming to be equal with God. Again, Jesus, does not deny it.
Faust said:
Secondly, apparently the authors of Matthew and Luke only had access to the Greek translation of Isaiah because the Hebrew translation of Isaiah says young woman, not virgin as translated in the later greek version.
Faust.
I am aware of this. The greek translations do not use the word virgin, but it is implied within the historical context. Thes writers lived in a different culture and time than we do, so the linguistic implications can be difficult to decipher. I think that Mary's virginity is implied through the use of the word maiden/young woman. Besides, according to Matthew 1:18 she was a virgin anyway.