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Why Abraham?

sooda

Veteran Member
"God" is typically a translation of Elohim, and Elohim is not mentioned in Genesis 15.

I don't know which reference to Ur of the Chaldees you mean.

Well, there was no Ur of the Chaldeans at the time of Abraham so its a glaring anachronism.

I thought Elohim was used early in Genesis because it was a holdover from the Ugaritic texts.. Elohim was plural for the children of the Canaanite god El.

It never occurred to me that Judaism didn't evolve over time becoming monotheistic.
 

pearl

Well-Known Member
"God" wasn't involved in the covenant of Genesis 15.

So according to you the Jews are not saved within they're own covenant, God made no such promise to Abraham and his descendants, and Paul is mistaken when he asserts the same. It would be most interesting to know what Jews believe concerning whether God made a covenant with Abraham.
 

sooda

Veteran Member
So according to you the Jews are not saved within they're own covenant, God made no such promise to Abraham and his descendants, and Paul is mistaken when he asserts the same. It would be most interesting to know what Jews believe concerning whether God made a covenant with Abraham.

@ sojourner

Maybe we should look at the word Elohim.

Elohim | Hebrew god | Britannica
https://www.britannica.com/topic/Elohim
Thus, in Genesis the words, “In the beginning God (Elohim) created the heavens and the earth,” Elohim is monotheistic in connotation, though its grammatical structure seems polytheistic. The Israelites probably borrowed the Canaanite plural noun Elohim and made it singular in meaning in their cultic practices and theological reflections.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

Well-Known Member
"God" is typically a translation of Elohim, and Elohim is not mentioned in Genesis 15.

I don't know which reference to Ur of the Chaldees you mean.

There are many names of God. He is seen throughout (Gen. 15). You don't have to believe it, but you can't change it.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

Ebionite

Well-Known Member
Well, there was no Ur of the Chaldeans at the time of Abraham so its a glaring anachronism.
Possibly it's a wordplay on light of the devils [אור כשדימ], like Nimrod [נמרד] is a wordplay on Marduk [מרדכ].

I thought Elohim was used early in Genesis because it was a holdover from the Ugaritic texts.. Elohim was plural for the children of the Canaanite god El.
In the Tanak there's ben (children) or Elohim. Probably the word had different connotations between those to contexts.

It never occurred to me that Judaism didn't evolve over time becoming monotheistic.
AFAIK the transition to monotheism happened during the Babylonian exile.
 

sooda

Veteran Member
Possibly it's a wordplay on light of the devils [אור כשדימ], like Nimrod [נמרד] is a wordplay on Marduk [מרדכ].


In the Tanak there's ben (children) or Elohim. Probably the word had different connotations between those to contexts.


AFAIK the transition to monotheism happened during the Babylonian exile.

Yes I agree so Elohim would have still been more closely related to the children of El.

What do you do with Ur of the Chaldees that didn't exist.. There is however Urfa near Haran which claims to be the birthplace of Abraham.

That's Canaanite turf.
 

Ebionite

Well-Known Member
What do you do with Ur of the Chaldees that didn't exist.. There is however Urfa near Haran which claims to be the birthplace of Abraham.
The wordplay suggests that the name was associated with religious practice, maybe this practice moved from one location to another?
 
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