I find percise at Genesis 2:24
-
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:- Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
- Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
- Access to private conversations with other members.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
Premarital Sex and the Bible
- Thread starter Skwim
- Start date
I find percise at Genesis 2:24
Technically speaking, within the context of before sin was committed, where covenant is made between a man and a woman and where there is exclusivity.
When in proper order, it would be also classified as a blood covenant. This definition is in context of two virgins of opposite sex.
That is not to say that it isn't a covenant if they are not virgins but the context is still by definition, a covenant that is made between a man and a woman.
We understand, of course, that there are many examples of marriage that would not fit that definition but, the intention of God, is as I defined. (I speak as a human knowing that I am not a lawyer to confirm every jot.)
Skwim
Veteran Member
Sorry, nope. That does not say anything whatever about how that woman became his wife -- just assumes that she is. There is precisely zero definition of the term, which is what I asked for.
(Aside from which, by the way, the man does NOT "eave his father and his mother," -- that relationship remains. Nowadays, actually, many couples live with one set of parents of the other until they get established. Stop pretending the Bible says anything, and try thinking on your own to answer the questions I ask -- if you are going to pretend to be answering them at all. Remember, I own several of my own Bibles, and I know how to read. I do not require you to do any looking up of texts for me. When I ask you a question , I am asking YOU. Not the bible.
Skwim
Veteran Member
Fine, but fornication is still not mentioned, which is what we're talking about.
.
.
So for the sake of clarity, neither King Solomon nor David was ever married? I do believe the "exclusivity" clause was pretty sorely missing, yes?
Does Porneia include fornication
If David was never married then why is his wife ( Saul's daughter ) named and mentioned
Sex with an animal would fall under the category of fornication.
By saying 'leave' is Not in a literal sense, but that the marriage bond would now take priority.
The couple would now settle things among themselves without having other family members decide for them.
Apparently, you didn't read my definition, even though you quoted it. May I ask why?
I added the "lawyer" point because I knew your were going to play the game
Last edited:
Are you really going to try and tell me that "after sin was committed" the "exclusivity part was removed from the definition of marriage? Because, for the record, I did read your definition.
It didn't seem like it since you only quoted a small portion... convenience?
Sin did create nuances but the standard was set... it's called "precedent". One example:
Matt 19:8 He saith unto them,Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
But, then again, you already knew that!!
That is why I said "before sin".
Trailblazer
Veteran Member
It was not a lot of trouble, I just googled it.
The point of the list was to give many verses that are related to fornication rather than just focusing upon one verse. The preponderance of evidence in the Bible is that fornication is a no-no, call it a sin or whatever you want to call it... No matter how many translations of the Bible you look at there is really no way around that...
Why can't people just face reality? God does not want people having sex outside of marriage, period. They can still do it but to try to pretend it is a-okay with God is just a rationalization.
The upshot of this is that you cannot have your cake and eat it to, not unless you are married... Choose God or choose your own carnal desires.
“Say: Commit not, O people, that which will bring shame upon you or dishonor the Cause of God in the eyes of men, and be not of the mischief-makers. Approach not the things which your minds condemn. Eschew all manner of wickedness, for such things are forbidden unto you in the Book which none touch except such as God hath cleansed from every taint of guilt, and numbered among the purified.”
Gleanings From the Writings of Bahá’u’lláh, pp. 277-278
John 4:17-19
"I have no husband," the woman replied. Jesus said to her, "You are correct to say that you have no husband. The fact is, you have had five husbands, and the man you now have is not your husband. What you have just said is quite true." And?
Skwim
Veteran Member
Skwim
Veteran Member
Skwim
Veteran Member
So you're picking one particular translation, the KJV, where "fornication" is found and assume it applies to all those Bibles where it isn't found. How about if I pick one particular translation, say the NLT, where "fornication" isn't found and assume it's translation "immoral" applies to the KJV. Think that's fair? According to your logic, of course it is.
Then why doesn't he say so? In most of the 59 translations I surveyed he doesn't.
You can say it's so and not in accord with God, but it's just a rationalization.
The upshot of this is that you shouldn't be forcing words into his mouth where he isn't saying them.
.
Trailblazer
Veteran Member
I am sorry. I do not understand the point you are trying to make with these verses.
angellous_evangellous
Christian
Are there any scriptures that forbid premarital sex, particularly premarital sexual intercourse?
.
Search an older translation for "virgin" and you'll find everything.