Trailblazer
Veteran Member
Are you saying that there are Bible translations where the word fornication is not found in any verses? If not, it might still be implied. For example, it says sexual immorality in some of the translations.So you're picking one particular translation, the KJV, where "fornication" is found and assume it applies to all those Bibles where it isn't found. How about if I pick one particular translation, say the NLT, where "fornication" isn't found and assume it's translation "immoral" applies to the KJV. Think that's fair? According to your logic, of course it is.
Are you actually saying that in 59 translations it does not say that or even imply it ANYWHERE?Then why doesn't he say so? In most of the 59 translations I surveyed he doesn't.
You can say it's so and not in accord with God, but it's just a rationalization.
The upshot of this is that you shouldn't be forcing words into his mouth where he isn't saying them.
I guess if it is not clear Christians are left to decide for themselves what is allowed and what is prohibited. The Bible has many translations and many verses that seem to contradict each other so if one really wants to I guess they can say that it is okay to have premarital sex and different churches might have different views on that.
Christianity is a lawless religion since Christians are saved by grace, by the blood of Jesus... So even if they do sin they are saved anyway... What is the motive for them not to sin? Perhaps that is why many Christians pay little attention to what it says in the Bible about sexual immorality.
I am glad I am a Baha’i because we have Laws and the Baha’i Laws are unambiguous with regards to sex outside of marriage.
From the Book of Laws which is the Most Holy Book of the Baha’i Faith:
“The Bahá’í teachings on sexual morality centre on marriage and the family as the bedrock of the whole structure of human society and are designed to protect and strengthen that divine institution. Bahá’í law thus restricts permissible sexual intercourse to that between a man and the woman to whom he is married.” The Kitáb-i-Aqdas, p. 223
Mind you, those Laws do not apply to anyone but Baha’is.