I'd have to look those up. I'm not overly concerned about it. Do you even believe that Jesus was the Messiah?
Jesus didn't say that Christians or Gentiles should be under the Torah laws, you're inferring it.
Of course I believe Jesus is Messiah, where did I indicate otherwise?
You made a claim that this doctrinal point needs substantiating from the OT, which I say it does when Jeremiah 31 is read in proper context. Then I countered by asking you what you think the basis for the Messianic Theology is to begin with.
If you're not concerned with why Jesus was considered Messiah in the first place, why would you even want to consider Jesus was Messiah in the first place? Just because it's a popular notion?
By this logic, Jesus gave no indication that non-Torah obedient gentiles could be members of the true Church, and he specifically said he did NOT come for ANYONE except the "Lost sheep of the House of Israel". So essentially, Jesus pretty much said non-Israelite-convert Gentiles are 100% excluded!
The only way to reconcile "Go and make disciples of all nations" with "I did NOT come for ANYONE but the lost sheep of the House of Israel" would thus be to say that these "disciples of all nations" must be members of the "house of Israel" through conversion to the House of Israel. He didn't say one becomes a member of the House of Israel merely by calling him lord.
At best he granted favors for the Canaanite woman and the Roman Centurion, that in no way indicates they were to be members of the church.
Even the first gentile convert Cornelius in the book of Acts, was said to be righteous by the Jews. Considering that the Noahide Laws aren't anywhere necessarily indicated before the Talmudic era, that could very well mean that Cornelius was a full on convert.