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"No man comes to the Father" Exclusive or Inclusive?

Rainbow Mage

Lib Democrat/Agnostic/Epicurean-ish/Buddhist-ish
The verse that exclusivists love to throw out, "no man comes to the father but by me."

However, is it as exclusive as first appears?
 

punkdbass

I will be what I will be
I personally would interpret it inclusive. All of the Hebrew prophets before Jesus's time taught "the way, truth, and path of life," as well, thus many Jews before Jesus came to God and eternal life, even according to the NT.
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
The verse that exclusivists love to throw out, "no man comes to the father but by me."

However, is it as exclusive as first appears?

I suspect it refers to His teachings.

A different way of saying...'My way or the highway.'

More so to point....
His parables describe what heaven is like.
Therefore His words are fair warning.
Failing to heed the warnings will stop you at the door.
Entry denied.
 

BruceDLimber

Well-Known Member
[Is the versr] as exclusive as first appears?

IOV, no. it isn't!

Because ALL the Divine Messengers God has sent are equally The Way for Their particular Ages, and indeed, many of Them have made similar statements to the one quoted.

Peace, :)

Bruce

 

Me Myself

Back to my username
When you remember that he said that anyone who helps his brothers is helping im, you may see how inclusive that is.

Do good works and you are helping Jesus. No matter how many "lords lords" you are giving him. If the pagan or atheist of the side is being more compassive to his felow brothers and sisters, he is being a better christian.
 

arthra

Baha'i
John 14:6, "I am the way, and the truth, and the life; no one comes to the Father, but by me."

I've looked at it this way that when Jesus was supposed to be speaking He was the Mediator between God and man... It does not exclude in my opinion that there can be other Mediators.

The present when Jesus is speaking He says "I am" the way, etc. again the present is meant.
 

Bob Dixon

>implying
It was Alan Watts,if I recall correctly, who interpreted that verse as referring not to the historical Jesus, but to the "Son of God". That is, no man comes to the Father but by the realisation that they are the Son.

That, along with the explanation Me Myself provided, seems to make the most sense.
 

kellykep

Member
Accessing God directly is the prerogative of the Son of God. All other mediators, mediate on the Son's behalf, not God's. But the Son mediates on behalf of all mankind and God. It is impossible to know God without the Son and it is impossible to have life without the Son no matter how perfect one can be.

For this matter, the exclusivity of John 14:6 should be viewed as a reference to the ability of mankind to access God directly - which is impossible and is exclusively the prerogative of the Son.
The inclusivity of the same text should be viewed as a reference to the ability of mankind to access God through the Son who already has pre-eminence over the accessing right to God and through his act of salvation for mankind ensures that all is included.
 
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Copernicus

Industrial Strength Linguist
Proselytizers are marketers of religion. Competition was stiff, so the warning made sense in its literal interpretation. It wasn't just to bring in new believers, but to keep existing believers on the true path. Pay no attention to those others religions or you'll lose your chance to get on God's good side. You don't want to end up on his bad side, do you?
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
Clarity....

The Carpenter gave us parables...instructions...
These instructions are the way.
If I say to you....'my way or not at all'.....that would be exclusive.

If I truly have a relationship to God, sufficient that I regard Him as Father,
then my word to you would be as....'brother to brother'....'fellow servant to fellow servant'.

This much He did say of Himself.

He also gave instruction is prayer.....'Our Father'.....

Whose Father?...your Father?....my Father?...brothers are we?
Son of God are you?
 

mellisakhan

New Member
DNA testing requires both subjects - the man and the child - to donate DNA samples. These samples may be in the form of blood, hair, or any other piece of tissue that contains DNA. The amount of the sample needed for an accurate test is very small.
Upon receiving these samples, the testing lab will isolate a strand of DNA from each sample and then compare them to one another. Strands of genes comprise DNA, and the specific order of those strands, or loci, is what makes an individual unique.
 

idav

Being
Premium Member
It was Alan Watts,if I recall correctly, who interpreted that verse as referring not to the historical Jesus, but to the "Son of God". That is, no man comes to the Father but by the realisation that they are the Son.

That, along with the explanation Me Myself provided, seems to make the most sense.

I like this interpretation. I tend to look at the way Jesus phrased it as speaking of the true path, the way which can be thought of as the Tao. To be the path or the way can only be taken symbolically because it is way of living. God the father being the destination not Jesus. Symbolically Jesus is the lamp the light that guides us same as Isaiah speaks of the son of God Jacob.
 

Bob Dixon

>implying
I like this interpretation. I tend to look at the way Jesus phrased it as speaking of the true path, the way which can be thought of as the Tao. To be the path or the way can only be taken symbolically because it is way of living. God the father being the destination not Jesus. Symbolically Jesus is the lamp the light that guides us same as Isaiah speaks of the son of God Jacob.

Totally.
To accept a literal interpretation of this would also be to belief that Jesus (and, by extension, God) is irrational, which is quite anti-Christian.
 
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