-
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:- Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
- Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
- Access to private conversations with other members.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
Is Jesus Christ true God AND true man?
- Thread starter peacecrusader888
- Start date
cablescavenger
Well-Known Member
the funny thing is, these guys are POE's...
I am sorry, could you tell me what a POE is please?
waitasec
Veteran Member
sure,
they are pretending to be something they're not.
i found this:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AOGKopUMBI0&feature=related
Last edited:
Dirty Penguin
Master Of Ceremony
Acts 2:36 is perfect and refutes your assertion that Yeshua IS "God". If you paid any attention to the verse at all it already states that "God made this Yeshua lord and Messiah". How can "God" make Yeshua "God"? Logically it makes no sense considering "God" has performed and action...and that action was not to make Yeshua "God"....The only one embarrassing themselves here is you if you're going to make the assumption here that Yeshua is "God" even though the verse and the understanding in that verse was that he wasn't.
That's just how you want it to be, which is useless.
I've already proved my view many times.
Even the quote that you used from the Pe****ta further asserts my view: that Jesus is ܡܪܝܐ (MarYah/The LORD).
But you look like you're looking for more Aramaic embarrassment.
Dirty Penguin
Master Of Ceremony
Actully I believe it is (marya). I haven't even heard of "maryah". Even the sources you and I have been presenting the word is not there. Talk about (how some one wants it to be). I didn't know making up words and emphasizing certain portions of the word was in your repertoire.
As far as proving a point....I proved mine considering the verse highlights Elah/Elaha making (that) Yeshua and lord and Messiah. It proves Yeshua is not "God"..
mohammed_beiruti
Active Member
Actully I believe it is (marya). I haven't even heard of "maryah". Even the sources you and I have been presenting the word is not there. Talk about (how some one wants it to be). I didn't know making up words and emphasizing certain portions of the word was in your repertoire.
As far as proving a point....I proved mine considering the verse highlights Elah/Elaha making (that) Yeshua and lord and Messiah. It proves Yeshua is not "God"..
well, Am not an expert in Aramiac but I think that AaLaHaA refers to God
here is Aramaic Lexicon link: Pe****ta Aramaic/English Interlinear New Testament
click tools --->click lexicon------> enter in the textbox "God"---> click search
Last edited:
Dirty Penguin
Master Of Ceremony
Yep. Thanks. They're all Semitic languages. Arabic, Hebrew and Aramaic may all share a common origin.
Now that's what I was saying about Acts 2:36. It says Elaha (Alaha - Allah - God) made (I've seen this translated by others as exalted) Yeshua (Yeshuoe - Isa - Jesus) to be both lord and Messiah.
Mark2020 holds that the word (marya), which he keeps transliterating as ("MarYah") which really isn't a word, as Lord Yah. Well if Yeshua is "Lord Yah" (Lord Jehovah) then who is Elaha (Alaha)....
Last edited:
Whether Aramaic or Hebrew or Greek:
At Psalm 110v1 KJV has LORD in all capital letters, and is where the Tetragrammaton stood.
The Tetragrammaton or the four letters [YHWH] that stood for God's name.
The other Lord of Psalm [110v1] has three lower-case letters.
That 'Lord' stands for Lord Jesus.
Yahweh or Yehowah is Not the same name as Yehohshua or Iesous and this would also be true in the Aramaic.
Yep. Thanks. They're all Semitic languaes. Arabic, Hebrew and Aramaic may all share a common origins.
Now that's what I was saying about Acts 2:36. It says Elaha (Alaha - Allah - God) made (I seen this translated by others as exalted) Yeshua (Yeshuoe - Isa - Jesus) to be both lord and Messiah.
Mark2020 holds that the word (marya), which he keeps transliterating as ("MarYah") which really isn't a word, as Lord Yah. Well if Yeshua is "Lord Yah" (Lord Jehovah) then who is Elaha (Alaha)....
.... and doesn't Acts [5 vs30] follow along your same line of thought that God raised Jesus....[Acts 2v32]....and [Acts 5v31] him [Jesus], God exalted with God's right hand to be Prince [Chief Leader] and Savior....
Dirty Penguin
Master Of Ceremony
Yep...and Acts 2 corresponds to what you presented on Psalms 110:1
Psalms 110:1
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Acts 2:32-35
This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, Until I make thy foes thy footstool.
Actully I believe it is (marya). I haven't even heard of "maryah". Even the sources you and I have been presenting the word is not there. Talk about (how some one wants it to be). I didn't know making up words and emphasizing certain portions of the word was in your repertoire.
As far as proving a point....I proved mine considering the verse highlights Elah/Elaha making (that) Yeshua and lord and Messiah. It proves Yeshua is not "God"..
You proved nothing. You just gave a poor understanding that contradicted even the verse that you quoted!
Even the references that you tried to use proved my view and disproved yours.
How embarrassing!
Now, sense you've introduce 1 Cor. 12:3 as your proof text then let's see what scholars say about it.
Professor Sebastian Brock of Oxford University, the world’s foremost authority on the Aramaic language, stated that “marya” is an emphatic form of “mar” (lord) and does not mean “Lord Yah”.
"Mor (or Mar) is an honorific title used both for bishops and for saints" (Sebastian P. Brock, An Introduction to Syriac Studies p. 1)
"Mar, literally 'My Lord', a usual title of ecclesiastics and saints. This title always occurs in the commentaries when the Commentary of Ephraem is referred to" (Society for New Testament Studies, New Testament Studies, vol. 8 (1962), p. 294)
He is is entitled to his opinion. But it is useless until he or you prove it. According to Mr Paul Younan and others, this isn't correct, as will be shown next.
However, giving contradicting arguments is self-defeating and shows that you don't know what you are talking about.
First you quote someone saying this:
"Mar, literally 'My Lord'
And then in another quote, you give Mar meaning master.
Quote:
Introduction to Syriac by Wheeler Thackston (Ibex Publishers, 1999), p.55
“ marya the Lord”
Unfaithful quoting as usual
But it backfires as usual. Here's Thackston P.55 :
Quote:
DUKHRANA BIBLICAL RESEARCH at Dukhrana Analytical Lexicon of the Syriac New Testament
mry
noun
lord,master
That's not ܡܪܝܐ
Quote:
Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon
(mārē, māryā, mārā
1 master Com. --(a) human Com. --(b) divine Com. (b.1) mArA), mAryA) : the Lord, God Syr. (b.2) mAry : my Lord, usually in reference to Jesus Syr...
Thanks for that:
mAryA) : the Lord, God
Quote:
John 12:20-21
And there were also among the people, some who had come up to worship at the feast. These came, and approached Philip, who was of Bethsaida in Galilee, and said to him: My lord [marya], we are desirous to see Jesus.
Surely we're not to assume that Phillip is (Lord Yaweh)..?
Incorrect. (Unfaithful or just copying what you don't understand?)
(John 12:21 [Pe****ta])ܗܠܝܢ ܐܬܘ ܩܪܒܘ ܠܘܬ ܦܝܠܝܦܘܤ ܗܘ ܕܡܢ ܒܝܬ ܨܝܕܐ ܕܓܠܝܠܐ ܘܫܐܠܘܗܝ ܘܐܡܪܝܢ ܠܗ ܡܪܝ ܨܒܝܢ ܚܢܢ ܢܚܙܐ ܠܝܫܘܥ ܀
(John 12:21 [Etheridge]) These came and drew near to Philipos, who was of Beth-tsaida of Galila; and they requested of him, and said to him, Mari, we desire to see Jeshu.
Quote:
Psalms 110:1
The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
The same word and lexicographical definition is there as well. Surely we're not talking about two gods. The word "lord" has multiple application and is not exclusive to "God".
Again incorrect.
The Lord said unto my Lord
ܐܡܪ ܡܪܝܐ ܠܡܪܝ
By the way, thanks for the big help.
Here is Luke 2:11 from Younan's interlinear:
As can be seen:
ܡܪܝܐ = the LORD (all capitals meaning YHVH)
Also from Aramic bible in Plain English:
“For today, The Savior has been born to you, who is THE LORD JEHOVAH The Messiah, in the city of David.”
Dirty Penguin
Master Of Ceremony
I understand that you have nothing. Elaha "made" Yeshua (lord and Messiah). If Yeshua is ("Lord Yah), mind you "MarYah" isn't even a word, then who is Elaha.....
....and why is Elaha exalting Yeshua to be lord and Messiah....
Incorrect.
Here is what the Pe****ta says:
1 Corinthians 12:3
ܡܛܠ ܗܢܐ ܡܘܕܥ ܐܢܐ ܠܟܘܢ ܕܠܝܬ ܐܢܫ ܕܒܪܘܚܐ ܕܐܠܗܐ ܡܡܠܠ ܘܐܡܪ ܕܚܪܡ ܗܘ ܝܫܘܥ ܘܐܦܠܐ ܐܢܫ ܡܫܟܚ ܠܡܐܡܪ ܕܡܪܝܐ ܗܘ ܝܫܘܥ ܐܠܐ ܐܢ ܒܪܘܚܐ ܕܩܘܕܫܐ
Aramaic Bible in Plain English:
Because I inform you of this: there is no man who speaks by The Spirit of God and says, Yeshua is damned, neither can a man say, Yeshua is THE LORD JEHOVAH, except by The Spirit of Holiness.
(Etheridge) I therefore make known to you, that there is no man who by the Spirit of Aloha speaketh, and saith that Jeshu is accursed; and no man also can say that Jeshu is THE LORD unless by the Spirit of Holiness.
ܡܪܝܐ is the translation of YHVH in the Pe****ta.
I understand that you have nothing. Elaha "made" Yeshua (lord and Messiah). If Yeshua is ("Lord Yah), mind you "MarYah" isn't even a word, then who is Elaha.....
You can't hide the embarrassment of quoting a verse that disproves your view and supports mine.
Thanks for that.
Acts 2:36
Aramaic Bible in Plain English
“Let therefore the whole house of Israel know truly, God has made this Yeshua, LORD JEHOVAH and The Messiah, whom you had crucified.”
Younan's Interliner
ܡܪܝܐ ܘܡܫܝܚܐ : LORD and Messiah
Dirty Penguin
Master Of Ceremony
Ok, so you can't even answer the question...which further proves you have nothing. Acts 2:36 is explicit that Elaha is the (God) not Yeshua whom Elaha exalts to be (lord and Messiah)....
(Murdock from Syriac)........God hath made that Jesus whom ye crucified, to be Lord and Messiah.
Elaha (God) has made that Yeshua, whom you have crucified, to be Lord and Messiah....
It's embarrassing for you....not me.....
Ok, so you can't even answer the question...which further proves you have nothing. Acts 2:36 is explicit that Elaha is the (God) not Yeshua whom Elaha exalts to be (lord and Messiah)....
(Murdock from Syriac)........God hath made that Jesus whom ye crucified, to be Lord and Messiah.
Elaha (God) has made that Yeshua, whom you have crucified, to be Lord and Messiah....
It's embarrassing for you....not me.....
Actually it's you that are trying to hide the failure of your poor quoting.
You quoted a verse which says Jesus is MarYah (the LORD).
And as usual you ignored commenting on my post where I discussed the use of MarYah as translation of YHVH, or probably had no reply.
I understand it was a huge embarrassment for you since you gave what supports my view.
Last edited:
Interesting. Thought your post ^above^ bears repeating.