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Is Jesus Christ true God AND true man?

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
Mark2020......

"MarYah" is not a transliterated word I have ever seen from any noted scholar. I think you mean (marya). Regardless. We do see the word (marya) in Acts 2:36. The word is not the problem for me here in this verse. For some reason the verse in its entirety is lost on you seeing as though you posit Yeshua to be "God" because of your assertion of the use of (marya) and yet we see Elaha before (marya) in the verse..furthermore the verse says Elaha (which there can be NO doubt it means God) "made" Yeshua to be lord and Messiah. I'm sorry but this verse disproves your assertion that Yeshua is (Lord Yah).
 

waitasec

Veteran Member
why did elaha make yeshua lord and messiah...?
because yeshua wasn't lord and messiah before he was made to be lord and messiah by none other than elaha...
seems logical to me....
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
why did elaha make yeshua lord and messiah...?
because yeshua wasn't lord and messiah before he was made to be lord and messiah by none other than elaha...
seems logical to me....

Exactly....He's so caught up into word translation he forgot an important part of understanding their scripture..(context)... Furthermore he trying to pull the wool over unsuspecting people's eyes by transliterating the word as (MarYah), a word that doesn't even exist, when all of the linguist and scholars I've seen render the word as (marya). You can see he clearly capitalizes certain parts of the word and adds an (H)......talk about dishonesty. Shucks, the Jews render the word (Adon), in that verse as (Master). At (pe****ta.org --> Tools --> Lexicon, type the word master in the search window) and you will see that it lists (Acts 2:36)....... Type in (LordYah or Lord Yah) and you get nothing.
 
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mohammed_beiruti

Active Member
I think lord here means in Acts:2:36 "master" or "teacher" ("Rabbi")

remember this verse

John 1:38 Then Jesus turned, and saw them following, and saith unto them, What seek ye? They said unto him, Rabbi, (which is to say, being interpreted, Master,) where dwellest thou?​



Uploaded with ImageShack.us
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
Mark2020......

"MarYah" is not a transliterated ...

As expected you've got nothing and didn't dare to try to reply to that:
But obviously, given such embarrassment, you'll be dishonest and keep trying to go in circles and avoid addressing this:

However, you didn't and can't negate any of these facts:
1-MarYah means YHVA
2-Pe****ta says many times that Jesus is MarYah
Since I gave my argument first, I'll be waiting for a reply to that, rather than your attempts to change the subject.(which you know aren't going to work with me)
When you're man enough to address any of the previous 2 points, I'll explain the verse to you.
Just for the sake of fun, you don't like how I write "MarYah" (which is like many Assyrians do) and you write: ܐܠܗܐ as Elaha.
"Elaha" is the Arabic for "goddess" :facepalm:
ܐܠܗܐ is pronounced Alaha or Aloho according to the dialect.
I'm sorry but this verse disproves your assertion that Yeshua is (Lord Yah).
I understand that being dishonest is your only chance to try to have a discussion, but it doesn't hide your embarrassment.

There is no doubt about either of these facts:
1-MarYah means YHVA
2-Pe****ta says many times that Jesus is MarYah
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
Mark2020......

"MarYah"
Given you repeated failure to discuss the verse that you quoted yourself, even using the references that you used yourself (like Thackston), I'll explain the verse.

why did elaha make yeshua lord and messiah...?
because yeshua wasn't lord and messiah before he was made to be lord and messiah by none other than elaha...
seems logical to me....
No. If you read the chapter from the beginning, you'll find that Peter was referring to Jesus' human nature:
"Jesus of Nazareth was a man accredited by God to you by miracles"
" God has raised this Jesus to life"
and finally :"God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ."
We were discussing the Pe****ta here, where the word MarYah (meaning YHVA) was used for "Lord", referring to Jesus.
This shows the Divine and human nature of Jesus.
As I said before, it is used clearly here too:
1 Corinthians 12:3
ܡܛܠ ܗܢܐ ܡܘܕܥ ܐܢܐ ܠܟܘܢ ܕܠܝܬ ܐܢܫ ܕܒܪܘܚܐ ܕܐܠܗܐ ܡܡܠܠ ܘܐܡܪ ܕܚܪܡ ܗܘ ܝܫܘܥ ܘܐܦܠܐ ܐܢܫ ܡܫܟܚ ܠܡܐܡܪ ܕܡܪܝܐ ܗܘ ܝܫܘܥ ܐܠܐ ܐܢ ܒܪܘܚܐ ܕܩܘܕܫܐ

Aramaic Bible in Plain English:
Because I inform you of this: there is no man who speaks by The Spirit of God and says, “Yeshua is damned”, neither can a man say, “Yeshua is THE LORD JEHOVAH”, except by The Spirit of Holiness.

(Etheridge) I therefore make known to you, that there is no man who by the Spirit of Aloha speaketh, and saith that Jeshu is accursed; and no man also can say that Jeshu is THE LORD unless by the Spirit of Holiness.

 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
Another translation is the "ARAMAIC ENGLISH NEW TESTAMENT", which renders Acts 2:36:

"Truly, therefore, let all the house of Israel know, assuredly, that Elohim has made this Y'shua the Mashiyach whom you executed on a stake both Master YHWH and Mashiyach."
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
As expected you've got nothing and didn't dare to try to reply to that:

Because everything you've posted has been refuted with Acts 2:36 which you still fail to address. "God has made Yeshua to be lord and Messiah. He can't be "Lord Yah, as you assert, if God "made" him to be lord and Messiah.

Just for the sake of fun, you don't like how I write "MarYah" (which is like many Assyrians do) and you write: ܐܠܗܐ as Elaha.
"Elaha" is the Arabic for "goddess" :facepalm:
ܐܠܗܐ is pronounced Alaha or Aloho according to the dialect

Ahh yes. I was looking at a lexicon and it listed it as (ĕ/ălāhā). My mistake. I was focused on the (e) at the front. You are correct. The Word is Alaha...but it doesn't change what I said...."Alaha" made Yeshua to be lord and Messiah.

There is no doubt about either of these facts:
1-MarYah means YHVA
2-Pe****ta says many times that Jesus is MarYah

(marya) means (lord, master). You may want to believe that (marya) means Jesus is Yah, which is to say God, but you have no idea why Alaha made Yeshua (marya) lord and Messiah. The verse alone refutes your understanding of the word and how it's being understood in the verse.
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
Given you repeated failure to discuss the verse that you quoted yourself, even using the references that you used yourself (like Thackston), I'll explain the verse.


No. If you read the chapter from the beginning, you'll find that Peter was referring to Jesus' human nature:
"Jesus of Nazareth was a man accredited by God to you by miracles"
" God has raised this Jesus to life"
and finally :"God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ."
We were discussing the Pe****ta here, where the word MarYah (meaning YHVA) was used for "Lord", referring to Jesus.
This shows the Divine and human nature of Jesus.
As I said before, it is used clearly here too:

[/color]

You're presupposing here. There is no information listed in Acts 2 that Peter thought Yeshua to be "God" nor any information he made a distinction between fully God or fully human. He is explicit when he says "Alaha "made" Yeshua (marya) lord and Messiah.
 
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Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
Another translation is the "ARAMAIC ENGLISH NEW TESTAMENT", which renders Acts 2:36:

"Truly, therefore, let all the house of Israel know, assuredly, that Elohim has made this Y'shua the Mashiyach whom you executed on a stake both Master YHWH and Mashiyach."

Usless, and an incorrect translation. Ask any Jew here if this makes sense and they'll tell you this is blasphemous. Just find me one Jew here at RF that agrees and I will issue an apology and concede from debating on this topic. The bad news is...you won't be able to find one.....:facepalm:


Alaha (God) made Yeshua to be YHWH (God)....?
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
(marya) means (lord, master).

You're being dishonest again.

But I suspect you need eyeglasses.
This is from the reference that you tried to quote from.

maryahfromthakston.jpg
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
You're presupposing here. There is no information listed in Acts 2 that Peter thought Yeshua to be "God" nor any information he made a distinction between fully God or fully human. He is explicit when he says "Alaha "made" Yeshua (marya) lord and Messiah.
useless...
All is answered in my post that you quoted...
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
Usless, and an incorrect translation. Ask any Jew here if this makes sense and they'll tell you this is blasphemous. Just find me one Jew here at RF that agrees and I will issue an apology and concede from debating on this topic. The bad news is...you won't be able to find one.....:facepalm:


Alaha (God) made Yeshua to be YHWH (God)....?


I dared you many times to try and discuss any of these but you failed:

1-MarYah means YHVA
2-Pe****ta says many times that Jesus is MarYah
 
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