I do not see that as an accurate transcript of how the conversation went.
If you follow through the posts each one is within context of the post its replying to in my opinion.
Some referenced extracts from the Wikipedia article Rape in Islamic law - Wikipedia
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Rape is considered a serious sexual crime in Islam, and can be defined in Islamic law as: "Forcible illegal sexual intercourse by a man with a woman who is not legally married to him, without her free will and consent".[8]
Islamic law, like the legal systems of classical antiquity and the ancient Near East, does not contain a true equivalent of the modern concept of rape, which is in turn based on the modern notions of individual autonomy and inviolability of the body, particularly the female body. In modern terms, rape is at its most basic level a violation of another person's sexual autonomy. In the communally and patriarchically oriented societies of Late Antiquity, a woman's sexuality was construed as something in control of her legal guardian or owner rather than in her individual control. Therefore, the category of coercive sexual violation was not clearly differentiated from other categories such as consensual violation of sexual norms (seduction).[9]'
'Classical Islamic law defined what today is commonly called "rape" as a coercive form of fornication or adultery (zināʾ).[10] This basic definition of rape as "coercive zināʾ" meant that all the normal legal principles that pertained to zināʾ – its definition, punishment, and establishment through evidence – were also applicable to rape; the prototypical act of zināʾ was defined as sexual intercourse between a man and a woman over whom the man has neither a conjugal nor an ownership right.[10]'
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The majority of Islamic jurists do not recognize marital rape as rape,[6] but some modern interpretations of Islamic law prohibit marital rape in other ways.[14][6] According to a hadith, a master could marry off a female slave without her consent, but needed to obtain her consent if he wanted to marry her after setting her free.[15]
Hina Azam writes that the crime of marital rape doesn't arise in classical Islamic jurisprudence, but they did address issue of a husband injuring his wife sexually. For example, perineal tearing by the husband was criminalized and entitled the wife to monetary compensation.[16]
Kecia Ali states that the Hanafis allowed the husband to forcibly have sex with his wife if she didn't have a legitimate reason to refuse sex;[17][18] this is also indicated in the fiqh manual Al-Hidayah.[19] This particular Hanafi position was not prevalent in other schools of thought,[17] who neither authorized forced sex in marriage nor penalized it.[20] While medieval jurists classified rape under the crime of ightisab, no medieval jurist classified marital rape as such.[21]'
Seems to be fairly well referenced by academic sources.
