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Describe those in Hell

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
Are you saying that the majority of Christians and Muslims are sick?

I am saying that there is nothing in the Hebrew or Greek scriptures or the writings of Moses to suggest that God enjoys torturing anyone. In fact they say the exact opposite.

Jeremiah 32:34, 35:
"...they put their disgusting idols in the house that bears my name, in order to defile it. 35 Furthermore, they built the high places of Baʹal in the Valley of the Son of Hinʹnom, in order to make their sons and their daughters pass through the fire to Moʹlech, something that I had not commanded them and that had never come into my heart to do such a detestable thing"

If Israel's children were being offered to a false god by putting them into a fire alive, then why would he do such a thing to his own children? He said that it would not enter his mind to do a thing like that.
In the laws stated in Leviticus, being "cut off from his people" is the end result of breaking the capital offenses...it meant death, not physical punishment in a prison.

In Israel's laws, there was no such thing as imprisonment...there was compensation for the victims of crime by the offender working to pay back what was stolen or extorted from his victims, and for capital offenses, there was the death penalty, ensuring that the criminal never re-offended. There was nothing that kept people incarcerated or tortured for any crime.

The idea of cruel suffering in a hell of eternal fiery torment sound more like something the devil would cook up to make God out to be a fiend....resembling his own disposition.

"Hell"(sheol, hades) in the Bible is simply the common grave. No one is conscious in that place. (Eccl 9:5, 10) We all go to this "hell"...even Jesus went there. It is not to be confused with gehenna or "the lake of fire" in Revelation. But there is no conscious torment in that place either. It represents eternal death. (the second death)

Also I would like to point out that it was made by a human as where the underworld's of various religions unless you have proof that demons did such.

If you are a Bible believer, then you accept what the Bible says...if not, there is no basis for further conversation. There is no underworld in the Bible except the six feet under that most humans have experienced.

God doesn't have to prove himself to anyone...it is we who must search for him and find the truth. He already knows us and is just waiting for a humble invitation into our lives.
 

RationalSkeptic

Freethinker
I am saying that there is nothing in the Hebrew or Greek scriptures or the writings of Moses to suggest that God enjoys torturing anyone. In fact they say the exact opposite.

Jeremiah 32:34, 35:
"...they put their disgusting idols in the house that bears my name, in order to defile it. 35 Furthermore, they built the high places of Baʹal in the Valley of the Son of Hinʹnom, in order to make their sons and their daughters pass through the fire to Moʹlech, something that I had not commanded them and that had never come into my heart to do such a detestable thing"

If Israel's children were being offered to a false god by putting them into a fire alive, then why would he do such a thing to his own children? He said that it would not enter his mind to do a thing like that.
In the laws stated in Leviticus, being "cut off from his people" is the end result of breaking the capital offenses...it meant death, not physical punishment in a prison.

In Israel's laws, there was no such thing as imprisonment...there was compensation for the victims of crime by the offender working to pay back what was stolen or extorted from his victims, and for capital offenses, there was the death penalty, ensuring that the criminal never re-offended. There was nothing that kept people incarcerated or tortured for any crime.

The idea of cruel suffering in a hell of eternal fiery torment sound more like something the devil would cook up to make God out to be a fiend....resembling his own disposition.

"Hell"(sheol, hades) in the Bible is simply the common grave. No one is conscious in that place. (Eccl 9:5, 10) We all go to this "hell"...even Jesus went there. It is not to be confused with gehenna or "the lake of fire" in Revelation. But there is no conscious torment in that place either. It represents eternal death. (the second death)



If you are a Bible believer, then you accept what the Bible says...if not, there is no basis for further conversation. There is no underworld in the Bible except the six feet under that most humans have experienced.

God doesn't have to prove himself to anyone...it is we who must search for him and find the truth. He already knows us and is just waiting for a humble invitation into our lives.

I did not say that the idea of hell exist in the bible I am saying that you called all Christians and Muslims sick so you need to own up to that and not throw out a red herring.
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
I did not say that the idea of hell exist in the bible I am saying that you called all Christians and Muslims sick so you need to own up to that and not throw out a red herring.

There are no red herrings...there is only Bible truth. The idea of God torturing anyone is unsupported by the scriptures. I own that completely.

What I said was...."Anyone who could even think up such a disgusting destination and attribute that to a loving Creator is sick"....so this is a "cap fits" kinda situation.
3550.gif


Who thought it up? I said..."That horrible description is something only the devil could conceive."

Please don't misquote me.
no.gif
 

RationalSkeptic

Freethinker
There are no red herrings...there is only Bible truth. The idea of God torturing anyone is unsupported by the scriptures. I own that completely.

What I said was...."Anyone who could even think up such a disgusting destination and attribute that to a loving Creator is sick"....so this is a "cap fits" kinda situation.
3550.gif


Who thought it up? I said..."That horrible description is something only the devil could conceive."

Please don't misquote me.
no.gif

There is not "bible truth" thee is only truth and the bible does not have it. The bible requires faith and faith is belief without evidence and in spite of all evidence.

Seeing as that most Christians and Muslims do attribute that destination to a "loving creator" they are, according to your statement, sick.

You thinking only "the devil" can come up with ideas for horrible torture is very ignorant of you.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
There is not "bible truth" there is only truth and the bible does not have it. The bible requires faith and faith is belief without evidence and in spite of all evidence.
Seeing as that most Christians and Muslims do attribute that destination to a "loving creator" they are, according to your statement, sick.
You thinking only "the devil" can come up with ideas for horrible torture is very ignorant of you.

Your not alone, there are many 'skeptics' around - 2 Peter 3:3-5
Why do you say the Bible does Not have ' religious ' truth ?
Jesus taught that God's Word ( Scripture ) is religious truth at John 17:17
What do you find wrong with Jesus' Sermon on the Mount ?

Isn't there a difference between faith and credulity ( blind faith ) ? ________
Since Jesus did Not get his faith ( beliefs ) out of thin air, but Jesus used logical reasoning on the existing old Hebrew Scriptures as the basis for his religious teachings.
That is why Jesus often prefaced his statements with the words, " it is written....." written down where but in the old Hebrew Scriptures.
Jesus explains the old Hebrew Scriptures for us, and shows the connection between the Hebrew and Christian Scriptures of the first century.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Ama's description is nowhere near the description in Luke 16. Read that if you would know what the next world is like for those being judged.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Jesus only talked with the crowds by using: illustrations - Matthew 13:34
So, the illustrative story found in chapter 16 of Luke is a parable or illustration and Not a real happening.
Jesus already earlier taught the dead are in a sleep-like state at John 11:12-14.
So, the dead are Not aware of the passing of time and are Not conscious - Ecclesiastes 9:5; Psalms 115:17; Psalms 146:4; Daniel 12:2; Daniel 12:13
We are nearing the soon coming ' time of separation ' on Earth - Matthew 25:31-33,37 - when the living people on Earth will be judged before the next world begins ( meaning Day One of Jesus' coming 1,000-year governmental rulership over Earth starts or begins)
 

Twilight Hue

Twilight, not bright nor dark, good nor bad.
By Hell, do you mean:

1. Gehenna - the lake of fire
2. Tartarus - the prison for 200 fallen angels
3. Hades - the realm of the dead
4. Sheol - the grave

I ask because the KJV took all four meanings and lumped them into one: a place of burning and torment.
Lets see


* A lake of fire.

Good for grilling and campfire stories and songs.

* 200 fallen angels.

God. A motorcycle club in the making.

* The realm of the dead.

Sounds like the perfect vacation spot for shooting your boomstick.

* The grave

No place is complete without a proper privy.

Hole in the ground heaven.


I'm sold.
 

peacecrusader888

Active Member
Ama's description is nowhere near the description in Luke 16. Read that if you would know what the next world is like for those being judged.

The spirit of Ama said that the soul of a person, in the Holy Bible, will either end up in Heaven or in Hell. The Bible does not mention Purgatory. So it is Heaven or Hell only.

In Luke 16:22-24, the rich man in Hell cried to Abraham to send Lazarus in his bosom to "dip the tip of his finger in water" to cool the tongue of rich man (Luke 16:22-24). Hell is like Gehenna where "fire is not quenched" (Mark 9:43-47).
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Jesus only talked with the crowds by using: illustrations - Matthew 13:34
So, the illustrative story found in chapter 16 of Luke is a parable or illustration and Not a real happening.
Jesus already earlier taught the dead are in a sleep-like state at John 11:12-14.
So, the dead are Not aware of the passing of time and are Not conscious - Ecclesiastes 9:5; Psalms 115:17; Psalms 146:4; Daniel 12:2; Daniel 12:13
We are nearing the soon coming ' time of separation ' on Earth - Matthew 25:31-33,37 - when the living people on Earth will be judged before the next world begins ( meaning Day One of Jesus' coming 1,000-year governmental rulership over Earth starts or begins)

Jesus ended the story with a comment about His own resurrection, so if it's only an illustrative story, His resurrection is only figurative.

Jesus didn't teach all persons who are dead are in soul sleep in John 11, He taught that Lazarus only was in soul sleep. A wise choice since He foreknew He would raise Lazarus from the dead, and like Paul, He kept Lazarus thusly from revealing significant heavenly revelations.

I have no problem with the concept of soul sleep, however, there were disciples present when Jesus taught in Luke 16 so you cannot use Matthew 13 as a proof text to say, "just an illustration". Further, if Jesus only spoke in illustrations when crowds were present beyond His disciples, important teachings like the Sermon on the Mount are also only illustrations--the poor in spirit aren't really blessed and so on.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
The spirit of Ama said that the soul of a person, in the Holy Bible, will either end up in Heaven or in Hell. The Bible does not mention Purgatory. So it is Heaven or Hell only.

In Luke 16:22-24, the rich man in Hell cried to Abraham to send Lazarus in his bosom to "dip the tip of his finger in water" to cool the tongue of rich man (Luke 16:22-24). Hell is like Gehenna where "fire is not quenched" (Mark 9:43-47).

Yes, the Bible contains no mention of purgatory. But it does contain mentions of Sheol and Gehenna, neither of which are Heaven or Hell. That is one reason why people who trust the Bible are uncomfortable with the revelations of Ama. The NT and OT both contain specific and strong warnings about doctrines that stray from the confines of the Bible.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
I have no problem with the concept of soul sleep, however, there were disciples present when Jesus taught in Luke 16 so you cannot use Matthew 13 as a proof text to say, "just an illustration". Further, if Jesus only spoke in illustrations when crowds were present beyond His disciples, important teachings like the Sermon on the Mount are also only illustrations--the poor in spirit aren't really blessed and so on.

The ' poor in spirit ' (KJV English ) are those who because of false shepherds are fed poorly spiritually speaking.
They hunger for accurate-and-abundant spiritual food as found in Scripture, and Not church traditions outside of Scripture - Matthew 15:9

Yes, the soul that sins dies - Ezekiel 18:4; Ezekiel 18:20, and the soul can also be destroyed - Acts of the Apostles 3:23
And the dead sleep in death - Psalms 6:5; Psalms 13:3; Psalms 115:17; Psalms 146:4; Daniel 12:2; Daniel 12:13; Ecclesiastes 9:5; John 11:12-14

Who is Jesus addressing at Luke 16:1 but his disciples.
Now who is Jesus addressing at Luke 16:14 but the covetous greedy Pharisees who proves to be the 'rich man' of Luke 16:19.
Just at the Pharisees of Luke 12:1 prove to be the 'rich man' of Luke 12:16-21
It is Not until Luke 12:22 that Jesus then addresses his disciples.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
The ' poor in spirit ' (KJV English ) are those who because of false shepherds are fed poorly spiritually speaking.
They hunger for accurate-and-abundant spiritual food as found in Scripture, and Not church traditions outside of Scripture - Matthew 15:9

Yes, the soul that sins dies - Ezekiel 18:4; Ezekiel 18:20, and the soul can also be destroyed - Acts of the Apostles 3:23
And the dead sleep in death - Psalms 6:5; Psalms 13:3; Psalms 115:17; Psalms 146:4; Daniel 12:2; Daniel 12:13; Ecclesiastes 9:5; John 11:12-14

Who is Jesus addressing at Luke 16:1 but his disciples.
Now who is Jesus addressing at Luke 16:14 but the covetous greedy Pharisees who proves to be the 'rich man' of Luke 16:19.
Just at the Pharisees of Luke 12:1 prove to be the 'rich man' of Luke 12:16-21
It is Not until Luke 12:22 that Jesus then addresses his disciples.

I'm getting the increasing feeling that rather than thinking about what I write, you reach for a Watchtower commentary to get commentary on verses for us. You made a blanket statement that all of Jesus's public teaching is mystery illustration, now you are parsing the Sermon on the Mount--which is it? That Jesus spoke in illustrations only to the Pharisees but not when there were Pharisees in the crowd on the Mount?
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
No, Jesus public teachings is Not mystery illustration. People who wanted to know more hung around - Mark 4:33-34 B
Jesus expounded or explained his parables illustrations.
 

peacecrusader888

Active Member
No, Jesus public teachings is Not mystery illustration. People who wanted to know more hung around - Mark 4:33-34 B
Jesus expounded or explained his parables illustrations.


I don't think that "People who wanted to know more hung around." This is Mark 4:34, "But without a parable spake he not unto them: and when they were alone, he expounded all things to his disciples." To whom did Jesus expound all things? To his disciples!
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
I don't think that "People who wanted to know more hung around." This is Mark 4:34, "But without a parable spake he not unto them: and when they were alone, he expounded all things to his disciples." To whom did Jesus expound all things? To his disciples!

Yes, not only to his apostles, but to any who were, or wanted to be, a disciple of Jesus - Acts of the Apostles 2:41 for example.
That is why today the international spreading about the good news of God's kingdom government is being proclaimed on a global scale today as Jesus said it would be done - Matthew 24:14; Acts of the Apostles 1:8
 

peacecrusader888

Active Member
Yes, not only to his apostles, but to any who were, or wanted to be, a disciple of Jesus - Acts of the Apostles 2:41 for example.
That is why today the international spreading about the good news of God's kingdom government is being proclaimed on a global scale today as Jesus said it would be done - Matthew 24:14; Acts of the Apostles 1:8

Why do you say "Yes, not only to his apostles, but to any who were, or wanted to be, a disciple of Jesus"? Mark 4:34 expounded only to his disciples. Why do you have to add?
 
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