I've explained my reasoning. Your turn.
How is this anything other than religious intolerance?
Ok, let me try to re-word this:
The Church of England is the national religion of England. Should, then, any policy that England makes be ascribed as happening "in the name of the Church of England"?
I personally do not think so.
Unless, it occurred through an edict of the Church of England, or through its power, or in some way
directly due to the influence of the Church of England, I don't think the policy can be ascribed to it.
Now, to use the popular examples of the Crusades and the Inquisition, these clearly happened directly through the power, influence, and blessing of the Church. Thus, I ascribe these evils to the Church. Does this mean I think Christians are all evil? No. Do I think that they have owned up to their past mistakes? Sure. I'm just acknowledging that they did happen, and they happened because of Christianity.
Now, fastforward to the Falun Gong. The oppression is occurring through the power, influence, and policy of the government. Atheism is a policy the government holds. Atheism is not the
reason for the oppression, nor the
force behind it. Thus, though there may be an indirect connection between atheism and the oppression, the line connecting the two is the Chinese government. Thus, it is the government I hold responsible for the oppression, and not atheism itself.
Does this make sense?