So why wasn't Jesus married to a woman, given that he didn't do any "spreading the Gospel" until he was about 30 years old. And why did Jesus love one of his disciples instead of a woman given he said nothing at all about homosexuality but condemned all remarried divorcees to hell unless they remain celibate and repent for their adulterous marriages (Mark 10:11-12 Matt 5:27-30)?
Nonsense. The word "eunuch" in the bible is defined in the Oxford English Dictionary as a bedchamber attendant [f. Greek eunikhos (eune bed + okh- .st. of ekho hold)]
If you believe otherwise, then perhaps you can describe how to castrate an unborn person in-utero (Matt 19:12), and whether Philip determined that the bloke from Ethiopa was a eunuch by having a look at his genitalia or by groping him (Acts 8:27)
That's just your personal opinion, and doesn't explain why he loved one of his disciples and didn't cleave to a wife before he had a change in lifestyle after his 30th birthday..
Nonsense. There's nothing in Romans 1:26-27 about female homosexuality given that it obviously refers to anal sex of women as well as men. If you believe otherwise then where does Romans 1:26 say anything about women with women "working that which is unseemly and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet" from penetrative sex with other women. Or are you claiming that the writers of Romans 1:26-27 describe female genitalia as "vile" and "unseemly"?
The S&G story has nothing to do with homosexuality either, but is about inhospitality and about the number of righteous children in Gomorrah (Gen 18). Or are you claiming that Lot's sons-in-law wanted to have sex with the two blokes in Lot's house instead of with their future wives before Lot mocked them and then sexually assaulted their future wives after sneaking out of Zoar (Gen 19)
Nonsense. There is absolutely nothing about female homosexuality in the bible, given that they do not have anal sex as described in Lev 18 & 20 and Romans 1:26-27.
Apparently you cannot grasp
So why wasn't Jesus married to a woman, given that he didn't do any "spreading the Gospel" until he was about 30 years old. And why did Jesus love one of his disciples instead of a woman given he said nothing at all about homosexuality but condemned all remarried divorcees to hell unless they remain celibate and repent for their adulterous marriages (Mark 10:11-12 Matt 5:27-30)?
Nonsense. The word "eunuch" in the bible is defined in the Oxford English Dictionary as a bedchamber attendant [f. Greek eunikhos (eune bed + okh- .st. of ekho hold)]
If you believe otherwise, then perhaps you can describe how to castrate an unborn person in-utero (Matt 19:12), and whether Philip determined that the bloke from Ethiopa was a eunuch by having a look at his genitalia or by groping him (Acts 8:27)
That's just your personal opinion, and doesn't explain why he loved one of his disciples and didn't cleave to a wife before he had a change in lifestyle after his 30th birthday..
Nonsense. There's nothing in Romans 1:26-27 about female homosexuality given that it obviously refers to anal sex of women as well as men. If you believe otherwise then where does Romans 1:26 say anything about women with women "working that which is unseemly and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet" from penetrative sex with other women. Or are you claiming that the writers of Romans 1:26-27 describe female genitalia as "vile" and "unseemly"?
The S&G story has nothing to do with homosexuality either, but is about inhospitality and about the number of righteous children in Gomorrah (Gen 18). Or are you claiming that Lot's sons-in-law wanted to have sex with the two blokes in Lot's house instead of with their future wives before Lot mocked them and then sexually assaulted their future wives after sneaking out of Zoar (Gen 19)
Nonsense. There is absolutely nothing about female homosexuality in the bible, given that they do not have anal sex as described in Lev 18 & 20 and Romans 1:26-27.
So, in your view, men, like women (likewise) burned with lust for one another un naturally doesn't mean women committing homosexual acts. WRONG.
Yes, you are right about the literal meaning of eunuch. However, why were they made eunuchs? because they attended and defended the women's bedchamber, where wives and concubines were.
You have never heard of children being born asexual, or with "confused" sexuality? Born eunuchs. They existed in Judea, just as they exist today.
Gen, 19: 4 Speaking of the angels in lots house " The men of the city, the men of Sodom, both old and young, all the people from every quarter surrounded the house and they called to him (Lot) Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so we may know them carnally". You think that is about hospitality and not homosexuality? The people of sodom, sodomites, became equivalent to the later term homosexual.
It is not just my opinion, I know the basics of Greek, specifically Koine Greek, and I know how the language relates to the English word "love".
You seem obsessed by anal sex, you see it in the Bible, where it doesn't exist.
Christ wasn't married, so what? I don't understand why that bothers you so much. Men choose not to be married all the time, that doesn't make them defacto homosexuals.
Christ was not just any man, He is the perfect man, God Himself, therefore He was party to giving the original law regarding homosexuality. You are attempting to say that He who forbade homosexuality, and approved the death penalty for it, was at His incarnation a homosexual? Inanity.
The Church has taught for 2,000 years what the Apostolic Church taught about homosexuality, it is a sin, and cannot exist in the church.