Why are women created twice?

[outhouse]

I love any chance to say "historicity."

And "feckless." Could you work feckless into the discussion, please, Outhouse?

ya me to lol


feckless??? heck i had to google it, thanks for the new word

Ill try, im a slow learner but retain things forever, if you see another post hit me up to remind me

 

[gnostic]

Egypt was a world full of divine myths and miracles and scribes did not have to be above juggling chronology of their events. Isn't it hard to discern what it authentic works of Manetho and what was corrupted?

You're forgetting a whole lot of things. There are a whole lot more than myths and just history written by Manetho; there are also abundance of archaeological evidences.

These evidences include inscriptions of royal commissions (of certain rulers) on palaces, temples, sanctuaries, mortuary temples and tombs. These buildings or what are left of it, can be dated to the time when those rulers had reigned.

Your scope is too limited. You've limited yourself to Manetho, while completely ignored everything else.

The length of some reigns are found to be impossible and even some names can't be defended in light of evidence.

And yet, you believe the Genesis timeline even more? So you don't think it is a fantasy or mythical that Adam, Noah and others living over 900 year of age?

Do you actually believe that Noah lived to over 500 to have his sons? (Shem was born when Noah was 502, and was a middle child.)

How is those ages of the patriarchs found in Genesis not mythical?

I can believe that Moses lived to 120, but you think Rameses II reigning for 66 years as not possible actually beggar disbelief. You seriously required reality-check on what age is possible and what isn't it.

 

[Jayhawker Soule]

Adam would have spoken and written in Hebrew.

:biglaugh:

 

[sojourner]

Adam would have spoken and written in Hebrew.

Or perhaps Esperanto...

 

[Songbird]

ya me to lol


feckless??? heck i had to google it, thanks for the new word

Ill try, im a slow learner but retain things forever, if you see another post hit me up to remind me

Feckless historicity would be perfect....see if you can work that into a convo.

 

[gnostic]

Adam would have spoken and written in Hebrew.

:biglaugh:

I'm not surprise you're having a good laugh. It was funny when I first saw it.

 

[Poisonshady313]

ya me to lol


feckless??? heck i had to google it, thanks for the new word

Ill try, im a slow learner but retain things forever, if you see another post hit me up to remind me

In a conversation with someone else, someone used the word feckless... then turned to me and asked me if I knew what "feckless" means.

My response: To be without feck.

 

[Many Sages One Truth]

Is woman created twice?

Gen 1:27 says:
And God proceeded to create man in his image, in God’s image he created him; male and female he created them.

In Gen 2:18 we see that Adam is on his own again. What happened to Adam's first wife?

Followed by, Gen 2:22, where God now makes woman out of a rib.

Woman wasn't created twice, because the Genesis creation "stories" aren't literal. The fact that there's two stories renders literalism "impossible".

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Woman wasn't created twice, because the Genesis creation "stories" aren't literal. The fact that there's two stories renders literalism "impossible".

Not two different stories but rather two accounts of creation from two different viewpoints.
The first account is constructed chronologically divided into six consecutive creative 'days'.
The second account is written in the oder of topical importance.

The first account describes heaven and earth and all in them [cosmos]
-Gen 1v1 - 2v4.
The second account concentrates on the creation of the human race and its downfall into sin and explaining why we aren't sinless.
-Gen 2v5 - 4v26.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

:biglaugh:

Genesis [11v1] and the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech.

That original one comprehensive language was Hebrew.

Since Moses great-grandfather Levi was half brother of the Joseph of Genesis historical details could have easily been known within his own family line.
Levi's life could have overlapped with that of Moses father, Amram speaking the same language as Moses.

 

[gnostic]

Excuse me, uravip2me, but you are forgetting that were many different languages spoken in the ancient Near East in the 3rd millennium BC, which discredit your claims of one language prior to the Flood.

Sumerian is a good example of non-Semitic language, spoken as far back as the late 4th millennium BCE. There are evidences of Amorite people living in much Syria and Levant, as well those living in Mesopotamia. According to the Bible, the Amorites were descendants of Ham and Canaan, which is nonsense by literary evidences of the Sumerians. How could Amorites be descendants of Ham, if the Amorite people lived prior to the Flood? And Abraham was supposedly the father of Semitic languages, and yet how do you explain the Amorite language?

Ancient Egyptian was also spoken as far back as late 4th millennium BCE, and like Sumerian, non-Semitic language. Again, according to the Bible, Egypt was supposed to be also son of Ham.

So how could Egypt be a son of Ham, if Egypt existed centuries before the Flood?

And then there is the city, Uruk. According to the Bible, it was founded by Nimrod, and yet historically and archaeologically, Uruk have been around centuries, and even prominent before the Bronze Age (4th millennium BCE).

Other than Sumerian, Egyptian and Amorite languages, there are Elamite, Eblaite (Semitic), Cretan.

So excuse me if I don't believe in this so-called one language of yours.

 

[outhouse]

lets not forget the Chineese who had writing going back 6000 years with no real break.

Their hebrew was a little rusty though

 

[gnostic]

lets not forget the Chineese who had writing going back 6000 years with no real break.

Their hebrew was a little rusty though

Chineese?

Yes, Chinese writing dated back even further than even the (historical) Chinese dynasties.

Indian culture? Admittedly, I don't know much about the history or archaeology of India. So I don't know how far back subcontinent cultures have been around for, or how far their language go back. How far do Sanskrit go back?

I suspect it may have predated the Tower of Babel myth.

 

[outhouse]

Chineese?

Yes, Chinese writing dated back even further than even the (historical) Chinese dynasties.

Indian culture? Admittedly, I don't know much about the history or archaeology of India. So I don't know how far back subcontinent cultures have been around for, or how far their language go back. How far do Sanskrit go back?

I suspect it may have predated the Tower of Babel myth.

sorry for the extra E I type fast and do not proof read forum material lol


Anyway the dispilio tablet from 5260BC has writing going back further and with the new shell carvings from china are pushing writing back to 8000 years ago.


if im not mistaken the panini sanskrit goes back 6000 years as well

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Excuse me, uravip2me, but you are forgetting that were many different languages spoken in the ancient Near East in the 3rd millennium BC, which discredit your claims of one language prior to the Flood.
Sumerian is a good example of non-Semitic language, spoken as far back as the late 4th millennium BCE. There are evidences of Amorite people living in much Syria and Levant, as well those living in Mesopotamia. According to the Bible, the Amorites were descendants of Ham and Canaan, which is nonsense by literary evidences of the Sumerians. How could Amorites be descendants of Ham, if the Amorite people lived prior to the Flood? And Abraham was supposedly the father of Semitic languages, and yet how do you explain the Amorite language?
Ancient Egyptian was also spoken as far back as late 4th millennium BCE, and like Sumerian, non-Semitic language. Again, according to the Bible, Egypt was supposed to be also son of Ham.
So how could Egypt be a son of Ham, if Egypt existed centuries before the Flood?
And then there is the city, Uruk. According to the Bible, it was founded by Nimrod, and yet historically and archaeologically, Uruk have been around centuries, and even prominent before the Bronze Age (4th millennium BCE).
Other than Sumerian, Egyptian and Amorite languages, there are Elamite, Eblaite (Semitic), Cretan.
So excuse me if I don't believe in this so-called one language of yours.

You ask good questions and an inquiring mind wants to know.

The Egypt of the Bible account was 'after' the Flood. [2370 BCE]
NImrod [Noah's great grandson] lived after the Flood.
The beginning of Nimrod's kingdom was Babel....Gen 10vs10-32
Before the Flood people could understand each other.
According to Scripture at the time of Nimrod people had a common language.
Later that original language was called Hebrew.

The 'parent' language of each major family has not been identified.
No one-parent language is identified as the source of all the mother tongues spoken today.

Abraham had no trouble speaking to the people of Egypt.
Abraham had no difficulty speaking with the Hamitic people of Canaan.
None of which seems to rule out people being bi-lingual.

 

[outhouse]

None of which seems to rule out people being bi-lingual.

that is the one thing you said that is correct and has historicity.


There world never has had a single language, and hebrews writing only goes back to about 1000BC

as to where all large civilizations before had writing in which they kept great records. Everyone of which does not jive with the mythical writing of the ancient hebrews.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

that is the one thing you said that is correct and has historicity.
There world never has had a single language, and hebrews writing only goes back to about 1000BC
as to where all large civilizations before had writing in which they kept great records. Everyone of which does not jive with the mythical writing of the ancient hebrews.

Anything perishable like paper would have perished in the Flood.
Only writings that Noah took on the Ark would have survived.
So Noah would have had Hebrew writings that Moses could have used in 1513.

 

[gnostic]

Anything perishable like paper would have perished in the Flood.

Technically, paper didn't exist in the Bronze Age.

Apart from woods, stones and clay tablets, hides (like for parchments) and papyrus (only found in use Egypt) were used around that time.

But that's beside the point. There is no proof whatsoever that Noah and co brought any writings with them. You're only making wild and baseless speculation on this point.

 

[URAVIP2ME]

Technically, paper didn't exist in the Bronze Age.
Apart from woods, stones and clay tablets, hides (like for parchments) and papyrus (only found in use Egypt) were used around that time.
But that's beside the point. There is no proof whatsoever that Noah and co brought any writings with them. You're only making wild and baseless speculation on this point.

...and parchment/ papyrus would be perishable in water.
Moses wrote at Genesis [5v1] mentioning the 'book of generations' by Adam.
[book/ scroll] History book, so to speak.

God, according to Genesis [2v19], brought animal creation to Adam to see what 'Adam' would call or name those animals. So, according to Scripture,
Adam had the thinking ability to name animal creation, Adam could have easily learned to write.