Depends on the denomination. Generally no.
... but are we talking about "Christian law" or the Bible?
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What's the deal with Chritian divorcees remarrying?
- Thread starter seeking the truth
- Start date
... but are we talking about "Christian law" or the Bible?
What 'narrow range of subjects' in what is Not covered in Scripture ?
Jesus viewed Scripture as being ' religious truth ' - John 17:17
Jesus gave us the reason and ' decision to divorce ' at Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9.
From the Greek word porneia KJV translated into English the word: fornication as being scriptural grounds for divorce.
Porneia covers all forms of unscriptural sex practices, and that includes porn (pornography), and also includes having sex with an animal.
Father Heathen
Veteran Member
But then why not just dump the whole thing rather than cherry pick from it?
Skwim
Veteran Member
Let's stick with the Bible, assuming that its pronouncements are binding on Christians, in effect taking on the character of religious law.
So, is Paul saying that for those who follow "our" teachings, other than being a widower in the first century AD and in the years to come, people are allowed to marry a woman while still married to another?
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Good advice.
When answering the Pharisees’ question: “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife on every sort of ground?” Jesus showed that God purposed for man to leave his father and his mother and stick to his wife, the two becoming "one flesh". Then he added: “So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has yoked together let no man put apart.” (Matthew 19:3-6; compare Genesis 2:22-24) There was never any provision for divorce in God's original arrangement of marriage.God was the one who united the pair, so no human had authority to break that union.
The Pharisees next asked: “Why, then, did Moses prescribe giving a certificate of dismissal and divorcing her?” In reply, Jesus said: “Moses, out of regard for your hardheartedness, made the concession to you of divorcing your wives, but such has not been the case from the beginning.” (Matthew 19:7, 8)
In Deuteronomy 24:1-4, it says....
“If a man marries a woman but she does not please him because he found something indecent about her, he must write out a certificate of divorce for her, hand it to her, and dismiss her from his house. 2 After she leaves his house, she may go and become another man’s wife. 3 If the second man hates her and writes out a certificate of divorce for her, hands it to her, and dismisses her from his house or if the second man who married her should die, 4 her first husband who dismissed her will not be allowed to take her back again as his wife after she has been defiled, for that is something detestable to Jehovah..."
So this would have made a man consider his actions carefully because if he divorced his wife and she became "one flesh" with another man, he was not permitted to take her back, if he changed his mind.
The Bible's advice for Christians (who were to revert back to God's original arrangement of one man, one wife,) was to choose carefully because there are only two exit clauses in this contract.....fornication (any unlawful sexual activity) or death.
Marriage is not for those who cannot commit for life. Those who find themselves in precarious situations (like abusive behavior) have the option to leave for the sake of their own health or spiritual welfare, but this is a separation, with no view to remarriage.
1 Corinthians 7:1-11:
"Now concerning the things about which you wrote, it is better for a man not to touch a woman; 2 but because of the prevalence of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife and each woman have her own husband. 3 Let the husband give to his wife her due, and let the wife also do likewise to her husband. 4 The wife does not have authority over her own body, but her husband does; likewise, the husband does not have authority over his own body, but his wife does. 5 Do not deprive each other except by mutual consent for an appointed time, so that you may devote time to prayer and may come together again, in order that Satan may not keep tempting you for your lack of self-control. 6 However, I say this by way of concession, not as a command. 7 But I wish all men were as I am. Nevertheless, each one has his own gift from God, one in this way, another in that way.
8 Now I say to those who are unmarried and to the widows that it is better for them if they remain as I am. 9 But if they do not have self-control, let them marry, for it is better to marry than to be inflamed with passion.
10 To the married people I give instructions, not I but the Lord, that a wife should not separate from her husband. 11 But if she does separate, let her remain unmarried or else be reconciled with her husband; and a husband should not leave his wife."
Paul recommended singleness for obvious reasons, (spiritual advantages) but if a widow or widower wishes to marry, they do not break any law of God by doing so.
He also made reference to separation with reconciliation as its aim....or if the issues are not resolvable, then separation has no provision for either partner to begin a new relationship with a view to remarriage.
seeking the truth
Member
Well guys, let me further complicate things, assuming that according to Deuteronomy 24 it means that one spouse can divorce the other if no longer in love with that other spouse, what happens in situations where two divorcees wish to get married, is that allowed?
I believe so.
I can't remember the reference, but in one of the epistles, Paul says that a presbyter should be "husband of one wife", implying that there were other men who had more than one wife; Paul never expresses disapproval of them.
jonathan180iq
Well-Known Member
Precisely
Why not cherry pick?
I'll steal good ideas from anywhere. I've even found a few (very few) in the Bible. I'm not going to throw them away just because I disagree with a lot of other stuff in their source.
Father Heathen
Veteran Member
Obviously my point was within the context of the book being regarded as moral authority. If you don't regard it as such, but found individual parts to be useful, then that's completely different.
seeking the truth
Member
Hey guys, one christian told me today that when we became born again and accepted Jesus as our savior that we were made clean so whatever sins we had committed before then would be forgiven so we would be starting with a clean slate, would that be accurate please? If the answer to that question is yes then that tells me that a man or woman who had gotten divorced prior to accepting Jesus, would be clear to remarry since he/she would be starting with a clean slate, is that correct too?
Since we are under the law of the Christ, (rather than the Mosaic Law) it is his re-institution of the original marriage arrangement that we need to consider....one husband..one wife...one ground for divorce, (fornication) and two grounds for remarriage (fornication and death.)
Since it was the mate who was sinned against who had the legal right to divorce and to remarry, perhaps the mate who committed the adultery or whatever the basis was for the divorce, the innocent mate is the one with the options, not the guilty one.
We also have to take into account that God forgives repentant ones, so if there is genuine repentance (and only God knows the heart) then he will forgive the offending mate.
Since the marriage is over, he/she may be free to remarry, especially if the other mate has moved on.
Since Jesus re-instituted the original marriage arrangement...one husband, one wife, the Jewish attitude to polygamy had to be re-evaluated for Christians. God only permitted polygamy for a time and a reason.
Why do you think Jesus "reinstituted the original marriage arrangement"? I don't recall anything in the Gospels where Jesus says anything clear on the subject of polygamy.
And why do you think one man and one woman was "the original marriage arrangement"? I don't recall anywhere in the Bible where it says Adam and Eve were married at all... and if we are going to take their relationship as a marriage, it could be as easily taken as "one man and every woman who exists" (or "one woman and every man who exists") as it would "one man and one woman".
Actually, if you want to go with truly "original", it would be man and an animal. God created the animals as companions for Adams first and only create Eve when none of the animals were to Adam's liking.