The other day I was listening to someone who expressed the absolutely insufferable opinion that a guiding principle of science -- i.e. naturalism -- is a product of bias on the part of scientists.
In effect, they were asserting that the only reason the world's million or so scientists do not entertain supernatural explanations for things is because they're all prejudiced against such explanations!
Tut! Tut! Tut! Nothing could be further from the truth!
Yet this seems to be a common enough criticism of the sciences nowadays -- especially with creationists. See this alarming article for instance:
Naturalism, Evidence, and Creationism:The Case of Phillip Johnson. Creationists these days are not only saying stuff like, "Naturalism is a mere bias of scientists", but they are saying such things where children might read them!
DOESN'T ANYONE THINK OF THE CHILDREN THESE DAYS?
Naturalism, of course, is the philosophical view that there are natural explanations for natural phenomena and that there is no logical or other necessity to resort to supernatural explanations for such phenomena. It is indeed a guiding principle of the sciences.
Naturalism more or less dates back in the history of thought roughly 2,500 years to Thales of Milieus who seems to have invented the concept. It comes in two forms, sometimes called "ontological naturalism" and "methodological naturalism", and of those two forms, methodological naturalism appears to be the most popular with scientists. Methodological naturalism does NOT posit that natural explanations are the only possible explanations for natural phenomena. Instead, it allows for the possibility that supernatural explanations might exist. Yet, methodological naturalism recognizes that supernatural explanations are beyond the scope of the sciences. i.e. You do not, as a scientist, say, "Lightening is caused by the gods".
So is naturalism a mere bias on the part of the world's scientists? Do scientists rule out explaining things in supernatural terms merely because they are prejudiced against such explanations?
Nope.
The truth is naturalism is not a mere bias, but rather follows logically from the foundation stone of the sciences: Intersubjective verifiability.
Intersubjective verifiablilty is an astonishingly sexy term* that means the verification of something by two or more "subjects". That is, by two or more people.
For instance, if both I observe that it's raining, and you observe that it's raining, you and I have thus intersubjectively verified that it's raining. Intersubjective verifiability is more or less the logical cornerstone of the sciences. All the crucial features of the sciences -- including naturalism -- either follow logically from that principle or are at least logically compatible with that principle.
So how does naturalism follow from intersubjective verifiability?
It follows because you cannot intersubjectively verify supernatural things with any reliability. You are only able to intersubjectively verify
natural things with any reliability (By "reliability", I mean reproductablity and/or replicability). Hence, rather than being the result of a bias, naturalism is a logically necessary consequence of intersubjective verifiability, the foundation stone of the sciences.
At least, that's how I see it. It's all pretty darn sexy, if you ask me.
Comments? Observations? Misunderstandings? Straw men? Rants?
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Footnote: *Actually, I'm lying. "Intersubjective verifiability" is anything but sexy. Happy now?