......... For instance, the term Mosaic Law is not a biblical term. Thus, it is my opinion that certain scholars/educators/religious organizations are attempting to dictate the rules of biblical reasoning. This is quite evident in John 15:25, where reference bibles direct readers to Psalms 69:4 as support for John 15:25. And, Psalm 69:4 direct readers to John 15:25 for support as well. However, when, we review Psalms 69:5 it seem to claim that the one who is "hated without a cause" is a sinner (KJV). This surely can't be referencing the Messiah. What about Psalms 35? Well, this as well isn't referencing the Messiah, it's referencing King David. Yet, the most obvious point is that Psalms isn't part of the Law (even though some try to suggest otherwise)! Hence, it seems to me that John 15:25 is spurious and isn't part of the equation..
What an interesting reply ^ above ^.
I do find John 15:25 does have corresponding verses at Psalms 35:19; Psalms 69:4 and Luke 23:22.
Jesus (who was Not a sinner) was hated without a cause Psalms 69:4.
However, at Psalms 69:5 David is referring to himself. God was aware of David's (Not Jesus) foolishness.
So, to me we are dealing with prophetic patterns.
Jesus is the high priest - Hebrews 7:26-10:22 - and Not David.
Psalms 35 does correspond to David at 1 Samuel 24:15; 1 Samuel 25:39.
Mosaic does refer to Moses and the Law God gave to Moses, so the Constitution of that Law is in connection to Moses.