BilliardsBall
Veteran Member
Thank you for your comment. The logic of the question is to understand what Christians mean when they say Jesus fulfilled. W/o the Christian definition of the statement it would open to lots of interpretation. Since I don't want to create an intereptation I want to under the one correct standard that Christians say it means.
So, if I understand what you are saying is that in Christianity, according to Jesus, if one loves God and their neighbor then there are mitzvoth that they no longer need to consider/do or that it was never the original intent for them to be done, after a certain point. Is this a correct interpretation?
1) The law for the Nazir had to do with voluntary vows, or in the case of Samson, a childhood/parental vow.
2) What is your point? Remember the rabbis who blessed horsemeat in the Shoah, saying "Live by Torah but don't die by Torah"?
3) You can find instances where Yeshua argued with our other Jewish leaders because He disobeyed oral law, but never a case where He did something forbidden by Torah. The sole reason yeshua was put to death, after false witnesses charges didn't agree (two or three in agreement were not found), during illegal false trials, was that He swore under oath to be Messiah and God.