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Logos is Dabar

firedragon

Veteran Member
John 1:1-3
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. All things were created through the Word, and without the Word nothing was created that has been created.


G3056 - logos - Strong's Greek Lexicon (KJV) (blueletterbible.org)
a word, uttered by a living voice
what someone has said
the act of speaking, speech

Psalms 33:6-9
Through the Word of Yahweh were the heavens created, and all their host through the breath of his mouth. For he spoke, and it was.


H1697 - dāḇār - Strong's Hebrew Lexicon (KJV) (blueletterbible.org)
speech, word, speaking

Genesis 1:3
And God spoke: Let there be light! And it was light.



Isn't it obvious that the Word of God is the spoken word of God? Then what makes some think that the Word of God is another being besides God?

Because Philo "SAID SO".
 

firedragon

Veteran Member
The vayomer is the dabar. The say(vayomer) is the word(dabar).

And God said (vayomer):
Let there be light. (dabar)

Amar is to say something. It doesnt mean "word". This is not English. I am no expert in Hebrew of course, but this is simple and you could look it up in a dictionary. Dabar means the speech or word.

I understand what you are trying to get at. What you say or utter are words. But you cannot conflate them into one concept.

"Word" is a simple "word", but author of the prologue of John who is theorised to have been influenced by hellenised Philo most obviously began this deification of the word.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
John 1:1-3
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. All things were created through the Word, and without the Word nothing was created that has been created.

G3056 - logos - Strong's Greek Lexicon (KJV) (blueletterbible.org)
a word, uttered by a living voice
what someone has said
the act of speaking, speech

Psalms 33:6-9
Through the Word of Yahweh were the heavens created, and all their host through the breath of his mouth. For he spoke, and it was.

H1697 - dāḇār - Strong's Hebrew Lexicon (KJV) (blueletterbible.org)
speech, word, speaking
Genesis 1:3
And God spoke: Let there be light! And it was light.

Isn't it obvious that the Word of God is the spoken word of God? Then what makes some think that the Word of God is another being besides God?

Simple, because Jesus as God's spokeman is the spoken Word of God, just a Scripture is the Word of God.
KJV omitted the letter 'a' at John 1.... and the word was God, but KJV added the letter ' a ' at Acts of the Apostles 28:6 B.

Plus, pre-human heavenly Jesus was "IN" the beginning, but Not "before" the beginning.
This is because his God is from 'everlasting' according to Psalms 90:2, thus God had No beginning, and was ' before ' the beginning....
Jesus was never ' before ' the beginning of anything either in heaven or on earth.
This is why John could refer to pre-human Jesus as the beginning of the creation by God at Revelation 3:14 B.
 

amorphous_constellation

Well-Known Member
Actually what I'm learning from reading the classics is that the logos is a thoroughly developed pre-christian concept.. it was part of the greek and roman world, and so first of all , it seems that the concept has to be imposed onto the bible
 

Clara Tea

Well-Known Member
John 1:1-3
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. All things were created through the Word, and without the Word nothing was created that has been created.


G3056 - logos - Strong's Greek Lexicon (KJV) (blueletterbible.org)
a word, uttered by a living voice
what someone has said
the act of speaking, speech

Psalms 33:6-9
Through the Word of Yahweh were the heavens created, and all their host through the breath of his mouth. For he spoke, and it was.


H1697 - dāḇār - Strong's Hebrew Lexicon (KJV) (blueletterbible.org)
speech, word, speaking

Genesis 1:3
And God spoke: Let there be light! And it was light.



Isn't it obvious that the Word of God is the spoken word of God? Then what makes some think that the Word of God is another being besides God?

Apparently words are actionable (they can create the world), and God is a word. Maybe this is why psychics are able to grab knowledge out of the thin blue sky (even knowledge of the future)?
 

Clara Tea

Well-Known Member
Simple, because Jesus as God's spokeman is the spoken Word of God, just a Scripture is the Word of God.
KJV omitted the letter 'a' at John 1.... and the word was God, but KJV added the letter ' a ' at Acts of the Apostles 28:6 B.

Plus, pre-human heavenly Jesus was "IN" the beginning, but Not "before" the beginning.
This is because his God is from 'everlasting' according to Psalms 90:2, thus God had No beginning, and was ' before ' the beginning....
Jesus was never ' before ' the beginning of anything either in heaven or on earth.
This is why John could refer to pre-human Jesus as the beginning of the creation by God at Revelation 3:14 B.

Rev 1:8, also 21:6, also 22:13. God was alpha (beginning) and omega (end), and the present. This makes me wonder if the expanding metric of the universe is running backward in time on the edges, forming itself.

By Special Relativity, we see that when something is moving at the speed of light, time slows to a stop. Beyond that, the equation shows that time is imaginary (whatever that means).

This might explain why psychics are able to look backward or forward in time.
 

Clara Tea

Well-Known Member
Do you speak Hebrew? Maybe you should defer to the understanding of people who actually do when discussing the Hebrew text. That would be wise, right?

I speak every language, but no one can understand me.

We should seek scriptures in their earliest forms, and that often means in Hebrew, Latin, or Greek. There are not many ancient Romans around, and Latin was, at one time, a dead language. Since then it revived. Hebrew, too, was dead, having been killed by anti-Semites who sought to keep Jews down and poor. Since then, Hebrew was revived, as well. So, some of the texts are not well translated. Furthermore, there were a lot of priests and kings with axes to grind, so they rewrote the bible their way.

The best we can do is get people who speak modern Hebrew to translate the ancient Hebrew texts as well as they can.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
I speak every language, but no one can understand me.

We should seek scriptures in their earliest forms, and that often means in Hebrew, Latin, or Greek. There are not many ancient Romans around, and Latin was, at one time, a dead language. Since then it revived. Hebrew, too, was dead, having been killed by anti-Semites who sought to keep Jews down and poor. Since then, Hebrew was revived, as well. So, some of the texts are not well translated. Furthermore, there were a lot of priests and kings with axes to grind, so they rewrote the bible their way.

The best we can do is get people who speak modern Hebrew to translate the ancient Hebrew texts as well as they can.
Hebrew was never a dead language. It was always used as a language of study and prayer. It was rarely used as conversational, but it was studied and employed consistently. What was revived was a modern, conversational Hebrew, but the people who study, study the ancient Hebrew and are familiar with it.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Apparently words are actionable (they can create the world), and God is a word. Maybe this is why psychics are able to grab knowledge out of the thin blue sky (even knowledge of the future)?
Any thoughts about Psalms 104:30 ___________________
Notice what brought Adam to life according to Genesis 2:7 ____________________
See also Job 33:4
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Hebrew was never a dead language. It was always used as a language of study and prayer. It was rarely used as conversational, but it was studied and employed consistently. What was revived was a modern, conversational Hebrew, but the people who study, study the ancient Hebrew and are familiar with it.
When one student in my High School English class asked the teacher which language is most comprehensive?
Her answer was: Hebrew.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
So did many pre-KJV translations(1535, 1537,1540,1560,1568,1599,1602); 'added' clearly the wrong choice word here.
In the ^ above^ cases then, there is No reason to question whether the inserted 'a' or Not inserted at John 1 proves Jesus is God.
Jesus never lied, so the answer Jesus gave at John 10:36 would have to be the truth about who he is.
 
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