"ok, explain how mat 19:9, mat 19:6 and 1 tim 3:2 can be the same as explicitly accepting polygamy biblically speaking.
if you will refer to the book of mormon, just say your justification is not biblical.
if you cannot justify your answer biblically meaning the doctrines are indeed different.
thank you!"
As I said, polygamy is not allowed at different times and in different circumstances. The scriptures in Matthew are talking about divorce. The Bible obviously condemns that, but you seem to avoid that subject.
In Timothy, bishops and deacons are commanded to have only one wife. We interpret this to be saying they must not be divorced. I doubt if polygamy was practiced during that time, as there is no evidence of it.
BTW, 1 Tim 3: 3 says "not given to wine". That certainly agrees with LDS doctrine.