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ISIL, Taliban = True Islam??

ISIL, Taliban. Do they represent the correct interpretation of Islam in your opinion?

  • Yes.

  • No.


Results are only viewable after voting.

Azrael Antilla

Active Member
The best method our irrational species of animals with limited cognitive capacity, incomplete information and inbuilt biases has ≠ flawless, objective

Not rocket science.
It is objective. Obviously. Since the scientific method is an objective methodology of investigation.

You're so full of crap. It's baffling. The method is flawless, even if the data isnt. Unless of course you think it can be improved somehow? Maybe psi powers?
 

Rival

se Dex me saut.
Staff member
Premium Member
This debate is so RFian.

'Do ISIS and the Taliban represent true Islam?'

'Yes.'

'No.'

'This is anti-science.'
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
Oh please. Shut up.

So you couldn't do it. Yeah, that is no surprise.
Here is the relevant piece of text:

3. The Problem of Demarcation
For Popper the central problem in the philosophy of science is that of demarcation, i.e., of distinguishing between science and what he terms “non-science” (e.g., logic, metaphysics, psychoanalysis, and Adler’s individual psychology). Popper is unusual amongst contemporary philosophers in that he accepts the validity of the Humean critique of induction, and indeed, goes beyond it in arguing that induction is never actually used in science. However, he does not concede that this entails scepticism and argues that the Baconian/Newtonian insistence on the primacy of “pure” observation, as the initial step in the formation of theories, is completely misguided: all observation is selective and theory-laden and there are no pure or theory-free observations. In this way he destabilises the traditional view that science can be distinguished from non-science on the basis of its inductive methodology. In contradistinction to this, Popper holds that there is no unique methodology specific to science; rather, science, like virtually every other organic activity, consists largely of problem-solving.
...

Karl Popper (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)
 

Azrael Antilla

Active Member
So you couldn't do it. Yeah, that is no surprise.
Here is the relevant piece of text:

3. The Problem of Demarcation
For Popper the central problem in the philosophy of science is that of demarcation, i.e., of distinguishing between science and what he terms “non-science” (e.g., logic, metaphysics, psychoanalysis, and Adler’s individual psychology). Popper is unusual amongst contemporary philosophers in that he accepts the validity of the Humean critique of induction, and indeed, goes beyond it in arguing that induction is never actually used in science. However, he does not concede that this entails scepticism and argues that the Baconian/Newtonian insistence on the primacy of “pure” observation, as the initial step in the formation of theories, is completely misguided: all observation is selective and theory-laden and there are no pure or theory-free observations. In this way he destabilises the traditional view that science can be distinguished from non-science on the basis of its inductive methodology. In contradistinction to this, Popper holds that there is no unique methodology specific to science; rather, science, like virtually every other organic activity, consists largely of problem-solving.
...

Karl Popper (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)
I can straighten that right out for you.

Metaphysical questions can only be answered with untestable hypothesis.

Scientific questions can be answered with testable hypothesis, supported by empirically derived evidence.

To produce the scientific theory.

X
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
I can straighten that right out for you.

Metaphysical questions can only be answered with untestable hypothesis.

Scientific questions can be answered with testable hypothesis, supported by empirically derived evidence.

To produce the scientific theory.

X

You do know how Karl Popper is, right? And his relationship to the concept of falsifiable?
 

Azrael Antilla

Active Member
I can straighten that right out for you.

Metaphysical questions can only be answered with untestable hypothesis.

Scientific questions can be answered with testable hypothesis, supported by empirically derived evidence.

To produce the scientific theory.

X
For ****ing example. The question about the conditions that existed prior to the big bang. Are metaphysical. Thus can only be answered with untestable hypothesis. Because. My dears. The laws of physics breakdown at that point. We cannot apply the scientific method of investigation!
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
For ****ing example. The question about the conditions that existed prior to the big bang. Are metaphysical. Thus can only be answered with untestable hypothesis. Because. My dears. The laws of physics breakdown at that point. We cannot apply the scientific method of investigation!

What are you talking about?
I am talking about falsifiable, induction and Karl Popper in relationship to the method of science.
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
Ifgaf who he is. I didn't study philosophy.

He is the guy that you refer to when you claim that science needs to be falsifiable. He developed that method. And he had something to say about induction. I gave you a reference.
Here is some more:
"Popper accordingly rejects the view that induction is the characteristic method of scientific investigation and inference, substituting falsifiability in its place. It is easy, he argues, to obtain evidence in favour of virtually any theory, and he consequently holds that such “corroboration”, as he terms it, should count scientifically only if it is the positive result of a genuinely “risky” prediction, which might conceivably have been false. In a critical sense, Popper’s theory of demarcation is based upon his perception of the asymmetry which, at the level of logic, holds between verification and falsification: it is logically impossible to verify a universal proposition by reference to experience (as Hume saw clearly), but a single genuine counter-instance falsifies the corresponding universal law. In a word, an exception, far from “proving” a rule, conclusively refutes it."
 

KWED

Scratching head, scratching knee
Appeal to authority fallacy.
**mod edit**
It isn't an appeal to authority. It's called "deferring to authority". It is both a common and legitimate practice in medicine, academia, science and pretty much everything. Hell, Islam itself fundamentally depends on it!
What are so many apologists so unable to correctly use informal fallacies?

Find a flaw in a scholars writings, and argue it must be true.
What are you on about. I merely pointed out the consensus amongst authoritative scholars that the passage is referring to women too young to have started menstruation.
I understand that you don't like the idea, and why you don't like it, but "I don't like it" is not a legitimate argument.
However, if you can find four similarly heavyweight scholars who explicitly state that it is not referring to those too young to have started menstruation, I will obviously change my position.
 
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stevecanuck

Well-Known Member
"True Islam" is what is contained in the Quran and sunnah. The problem is that no one can agree what they really say.

To me, "true Islam" is what its creator, Mohamed, meant it to be. And that's the Qur'an only. He made no allowance for anything else to be considered. Everything that's not the Qur'an came after his death, and is therefore an add-on. That's why 99% of my reading has been the Qur'an.

That's not to say I discount hadiths out of hand as being wrong. In fact they add insight when paired with Qur'anic verses. However, that doesn't change the fact that Mohamed never intended them to be written and studied. If he had, he would have said so.
 
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