Often it is taken for granted that Jesus (p) is God. 2,000 years of tradition has taken precedent over the actual words of the Bible and the Word himself.
I am going to post the verses used to "prove" Jesus (p) is God, show how they do the exact opposite and thus prove with the evidence used pro Jesus being God it actually proves the opposite. It is not at all difficult.
Then I will post the verses that directly contradict the theory that Jesus is equal to God, and if he is not equal he is not God.
1:-YOU SAID:- Often it is taken for granted that Jesus (p) is God. 2,000 years of tradition has taken precedent over the actual words of the Bible and the Word himself.
I am going to post the verses used to "prove" Jesus (p) is God, show how they do the exact opposite and thus prove with the evidence used pro Jesus being God it actually proves the opposite. It is not at all difficult.
Then I will post the verses that directly contradict the theory that Jesus is equal to God, and if he is not equal he is not God.
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word(Logos), and the Word was with God (Tontheos) and the Word was God (theos, which means Divine or A god, NOT God).
This is obviously not saying that Jesus is God in the original Koine Greek, it is saying that God's Word is Divine, borrowing from Platonic/Philonic philosophy (Logos) for a Hellenistic audience.
MY REPLY:- In the New Testament, God appears 1305 times (without the article 282, and with the article 1023 times). Of the 282 times, the NWT translates 16 times as a god. That is only 6% of the time. The NWT state that where Theos without the article is given, then it should be translated as 'a god.' They are inconsistent with their own rules of translation, when it comes to John 1:1. Jesus cannot be a god, as there is no god with God in Deuteronomy 32:39. Ninety-nine percent of the Bibles in existence translate John 1:1 with 'God was the Word.' This is no accident, nor is it a desire to be chummy with other translators, but it is how translators truly see the correct way it should be translated. There are many translators who would be courageous enough, to translate it differently, if it were not so. The doctrine of the Trinity is not man made, no man would be ridiculous enough to invent such a doctrine and expect millions of people to believe it, if it were not so and correctly translated in the Scriptures.
2:- YOU SAID:- John 8:58 " Truly I tell you, before Abraham was, I am."
Because God says to Moses "I am that I am" it is ASSUMED Jesus means to say "I AM I am" but he doesn't say that AT ALL.
Punctuation was non existent, it could just as easily be "Before Abraham, was I am (God)."
But I will give the benefit of the doubt, besides, Muslims actually do believe in the preexistence of Jesus.
Which is ALL he was saying, before Abraham was, I am(prexistent, immortal, not God though).
MY REPLY:- John 8:58
The Jews are baffled, and again can only apply worldly standards of measurement. Jesus does not even seem to be fifty years of age, the time of mature manhood, and Abraham had lived and died centuries earlier. Then how can Jesus make the absurd statement that Abraham had seen Him?
The moment has come for Jesus’ triumphant proclamation, “Before Abraham was, I AM.” He makes clear the towering meaning of His claim by contrasting His own eternal existence with that of Abraham, who, though he was the father of his nation, was a fragile human being. Jesus is not saying, “I was,” but “I AM.” Abraham died, but Jesus is the Giver of life; the one is created, the Other is uncreated.
“I AM” is that sacred name for deity Moses heard at the burning bush. “Thus you shall say to the children of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you’” (Ex. 3:14). And Leon Morris, a renowned evangelical writer, says that Jesus’ dramatic statement brings out the meaning of His pre-existence in a “more striking fashion” than anywhere else in the Gospel. We can only fall down in awe before the majesty of His Being.
3:-
YOU SAID:- John 10:30
"I and my Father are one."
Out of context I can see why people misinterpret this verse. Let's see what Jesus says right after this when he is about to be stoned:
"I have shown you many good works FROM THE FATHER."
His Father, our Father, the Father. Clearly Jesus is not saying he himself is God THE FATHER, and that his good works are FROM the Father and not of his doing alone.
Which is why he says, 10:29 "What my Father has GIVEN me is greater than all else, and no one (not even Jesus) can snatch it out of the Father's hand. THE Father and I are one."
A metaphor for a united will. God's will is Jesus will, not visa versa.
MY REPLY:-You must pay attention to the context. You must include the verses around verse 30. The most important verse is, I think verse 33. I and
my Father are one.
31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
The Jews got the inference right that Jesus claimed to be God, and Jesus did not refute this assertion, confirming the fact that He is God. They claimed that they found no objection in His works. (Yet His healings on the Sabbath had angered them, that He was lord even of the Sabbath. [5:18; 9:16].) They said they objected because He, a mere man, claimed to be God. This, they said, was blasphemy. And yet, ironically, Jesus, who is God, did become Man (1:1, 14, 18). Jesus did not walk around Palestine saying “I am God,” but His interpretation of the Sabbath and His words about His union with the Father revealed His claim of oneness in nature with God.
This is all I have time for. I hope this helps. Certainty for eternity.
