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Examining the evidence there is of God

leroy

Well-Known Member
Fine, but what I wrote still stands. Please address the points with which you disagree at the time you read them. I told you that there is no topic I wish to discuss. My interest is in debate in general.



Ok, with respect to simultaneous causation you said this

Why can't cause and effect be simultaneous? Which is which? Which one caused the other? How do we decide that that they aren't coincidence (each has its own prior cause) or both the effect of the same prior cause?

In the context of this conversation we where talking about the “first cause”………. You said (or implied) that you can´t have a “cause” prior to the first moment of time. (Implying that if there was a first moment it didn’t had a cause)

I asked a rhetorical question, “why can´t the first cause be simultaneous”

You responded this:

Why can't cause and effect be simultaneous? Which is which? Which one caused the other? How do we decide that that they aren't coincidence (each has its own prior cause) or both the effect of the same prior cause?


So my answer to your claim would be

Cause if just something that contribute to an outcome (the effect) ..... so which is wchis in simultanous causation? well if X can produce Y and Y can´t produce X then X would be the cause. imagine a heavy ball resting in a soft couch, causing a curvature .

You would know that the ball is causing the curvature, (rather than the curvature causing the ball) because you know that balls cause curvatures, and that curvatures don’t cause balls. …………… so assuming for example a ball in a couch from infinity past the curvature would also be there from infinity past (therefore both would be simulators) but you would still know that the ball is causing the curvature.


My point is that you don’t need to observe and show that the ball is prior to the curvature in order to know wich is the cause and which is the effect.

Besides I think there are many likely examples of simultaneous cause and effect

1 quantum entanglement: according to some interpretations of QM observing particle A (cause) would automatically collapse particle B (effect)

2 you winning a race: If you cross the line before your competitors (Cuase) you will win he race (Effect)…..(cause an effect are simulnaous)

3 cutting something in 2 parts: if you cut a circle in 2 pars (cause) you will get 2 semi circles (effect)…………cause and effect are simultanous

Etc. there are many examples of cause and effect that seem to be simultanous

Besides, the only reason for why the cause usually comes before the effect is because the speed of light is limited….. but that is a physical constrain that wouldn’t affect God, nor any other hypothetical “first cause”
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
Yes, and it fails just as badly when you do that. In fact both of you admit to an irrational belief when you use the projection in that argument.
Ok, but how would you reply to his argument?......or is he also being disrespectful and doesn’t deserves an answer?

In my opinion he made a good point
 

Ancient Soul

The Spiritual Universe
As if there has ever been only one God and only one version of that one God to choose from. The Scriptures of the different major religions vary. The interpretations of those Scriptures vary. And people in each religion and in each sect of those religions probably think they have chosen the right religion and believe that there is evidence to prove it.

That's the thing that really stood out for me, all the confusion in them. Well, that and the lack of anything truly spiritual to offer in any of them.

On the flip side, most of my life I've kept my spiritual differences secret, only opening up a bit on the Internet. And was amazed that when I touched base with the rare few others who've had similar spiritual experiences and abilities, as we were all pretty much in accord on the attributes of God, what the Spiritual Universe (What most call Heaven.) is like, and other spiritual matters.

If the Baha'i Faith is the truth. If Baha'u'llah is the manifestation for today and has the newest message from God, then most believers in the world today have chosen to believe in something outdated and wrong. But how many have really chosen their religion and how many are just following what their parents or the majority of the people around them believe in?

The vast majority would fall into the last category.
 

F1fan

Veteran Member
The other option Is that evolution proves the intelligent design.
Really? Over 99.99% of all species that have existed over billions of years have gone extinct. What is intelligent about that?

The evolutionary process of the human species was part of that design and the evolutionary process has not stopped. Evolution is not a mutation, nor an accident, but full of purpose.
So it took evolution billions of years just so humans could exist for the last 200K years? That includes the dinosaurs evolving and going extinct. That includes some humans having genetic defects and genetic diseases that are fatal to both children and young adults. I want to know what is inteligent about that? If evolution was going to take billions of years to get to humans why aren't humans more perfect?

This is why God provides humanity with progressive Revelations. As we evolve, we need to embrace the progressive wisdom, as only God knows our capacity and provides us with the required guidance.
No gods are known to exist, so irrelevant.
 

TransmutingSoul

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Really? Over 99.99% of all species that have existed over billions of years have gone extinct. What is intelligent about that?

You get to make a comment using a device connected to a WWW.

The human species is also very ancient.

Regards Tony
 

It Aint Necessarily So

Veteran Member
Premium Member
imagine a heavy ball resting in a soft couch, causing a curvature . You would know that the ball is causing the curvature, (rather than the curvature causing the ball) because you know that balls cause curvatures, and that curvatures don’t cause balls. …………… so assuming for example a ball in a couch from infinity past the curvature would also be there from infinity past (therefore both would be simulators) but you would still know that the ball is causing the curvature. My point is that you don’t need to observe and show that the ball is prior to the curvature in order to know which is the cause and which is the effect.

I disagree. How do we know that curvatures don't cause balls? Why would we assume the ball was the cause of the curvature unless we had prior experience where balls exist before the curvatures they cause when set down on soft surfaces? My point remains that to call something a cause, it must precede what we call its effect. One's grandparents caused his parents (effect), who were the cause of him. How do we know that they all didn't spring into existence simultaneously? What if they did? Would it make sense to call any of them the cause of any of the rest of them?

You seem to think that an eternal universe needs no explanation, whereas a universe that is created does.

Let me summarize. The universe exists. I can conceive of four logical possibilities for why that is. With two of them, the universe is uncaused: it either always existed or came into being uncaused. The other two have a prior source for the universe. One has that source conscious (intelligent designer) and the other an unconscious substance like a multiverse. Leroy and I had been discussing the Kalam Cosmological Argument (KCA), which says that the universe has a cause, since the universe had a beginning and everything that has a beginning has a cause. Both of those premises are challenged by the first two possibilities. The first premise is wrong if the universe has always existed, and the second is wrong if it came into being uncaused. We were going in a circle as you and I are now, and so, to move forward, I stipulated to the premises of the KCA and agreed to assume the universe had a cause.

What I have been saying to you is that it is special pleading to insist that the existence of universe needs a source, but a deity does not.

The non-material concept of God is eternal .. it really does not matter whether the universe is eternal or not .. it does not require "special pleading" any more than an eternal universe.

You believe that a god exists, a conscious tri-omni deity. Let's subject it to the same analysis as the universe. Why is there a god? You may recall that I had mentioned another creationist poster being unwilling to consider that question. He dismissed it with an ad lapidem fallacy - the question was absurd, he said. I mentioned that as an example of a theist being unwilling or unable to even think about his god not existing, and I suggested that this would normally be due to either fear of offending the god with his doubt or fear of allowing himself to take what he considers the first step toward atheism. As long as he never entertains such thoughts, his salvation is secure in hs estimation.

God cannot be empirically proved, and you know it.

Yes, and as an empiricist, I consider that a good enough reason to be an agnostic atheist.

Basically, what you are saying is that until I can prove to you that there exists something superior to human beings, responsible for the existence of the universe .. you will assume there is not.

That's close but not quite right. The agnostic atheist will live as if no such thing exists until he has a reason to believe otherwise but does not assume that this god does not exist.

the Messenger of God is the evidence of intelligent design, they possess Innate knowledge, and become the proof when they display the Innate knowledge, even from the youngest years.

The message is very human sounding, and I believe that you know that, or else you would have produced text that was not human sounding as a rebuttal.

If the knowledge was not learned, where did it come from?

What knowledge? The flowery prose admonishing people to be pious and cooperative? Where did that come from? The same place this post comes from - human imagination.
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
I disagree. How do we know that curvatures don't cause balls? Why would we assume the ball was the cause of the curvature unless we had prior experience where balls exist before the curvatures they cause when set down on soft surfaces? My point remains that to call something a cause, it must precede what we call its effect. One's grandparents caused his parents (effect), who were the cause of him. How do we know that they all didn't spring into existence simultaneously? What if they did? Would it make sense to call any of them the cause of any of the rest of them?



.
Because you know the properties of the ball and the properties of curvatures, this is why you can know that the ball is the cause and the curvature the effect.

If you enter to a room and simply observe a ball resting on the couch, you would know that the ball is the cause of the curvature, even if you didn’t observe the ball coming in to existence before the curvature. ……… why because you can still look at the ball , analyses it´s characteristics and conclude that the ball has the “power” to cause curvatures.

I would also add that “not knowing” which is which doesn’t invalidates the possibility of simultaneous causation, that would simply show that humans have a limitation on their knowledge ………. So for these reasons I think your objection is bad

1 yes we can know which is which

2 even if you cant know that would simply prove a limitation to human knowledge but it would show that the idea of simultaneous cause and effect is incoherent or impossible



One's grandparents caused his parents (effect), who were the cause of him. How do we know that they all didn't spring into existence simultaneously?
Sure, in that specific example perhaps the cause necessarily comes before the effect.

I am not saying that the cause is always simultaneous to the effect, I am just saying that it is a possibility
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
It Aint Necessarily So said:
What I have been saying to you is that it is special pleading to insist that the existence of universe needs a source, but a deity does not.

The key is the word "eternal".
An eternal thing does not need "a source", so do you think that the material universe is eternal .. or not?


Agree that is not special pleading, you are suggesting that the source (God) has relevant properties that the universe lacks

you are not making an arbitrary exception
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
It is incomplete, but it is probably far more complete than what convinced you. And you are probably telling what you believe but that does not make it "The truth". The problem with God beliefs is that people tend to want to believe them. That means that they are subject to confirmation bias and other flaws. A person may truly believe that 2 + 2 = 5. Does that make it the truth? He would not be lying if he tried to tell everyone that 2 + 2 = 5, he would merely be wrong.

I believe what you have done with evidence is like saying 2 + 2 does not equal 4 because it does not fit your criteria which is unnaturally biased.
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
I believe what you have done with evidence is like saying 2 + 2 does not equal 4 because it does not fit your criteria which is unnaturally biased.
Sorry, that would be you. If you want to claim to have evidence you have a few options. You could use an existing definition. Such as the definition of scientific evidence. That would be the most reasonable and reliable evidence to use, but you probably know that you do not have any evidence that rises to that level. Or you could try to define what you mean by evidence yourself. You would need a working definition. That would mean that people would be able to judge whether or not something was evidence regardless of one's personal beliefs. For example the Bible is not evidence since others do not accept it. You would first have to prove that the Bible is reliable and that does not appear to be the case.

Let's get started. What sort of evidence do you plan to use?
 

TransmutingSoul

Veteran Member
Premium Member
The message is very human sounding, and I believe that you know that, or else you would have produced text that was not human sounding as a rebuttal.

It is humans God is communicating with, through a selected human Messenger, so how would you like them to speak?

The Word was given in Arabic and Persian. This is also great evidence, as it is written in such away that it is new and thought provoking.

It is a proof, we are challenged to produce words that match them.

Regards Tony
 

TransmutingSoul

Veteran Member
Premium Member
What knowledge? The flowery prose admonishing people to be pious and cooperative? Where did that come from? The same place this post comes from - human imagination.

This statement just indicates an entire ignorance of the given evidence and the subject matter of religious scriptures.

I do hold hope for justice, but see none from your pen at this time.

Regards Tony
 

It Aint Necessarily So

Veteran Member
Premium Member
do you think that the material universe is eternal .. or not?

I have no test, observation, or algorithm to decide the matter, so I remain agnostic about it. If it is, there is no need for a creator.

Because you know the properties of the ball and the properties of curvatures, this is why you can know that the ball is the cause and the curvature the effect.

I know that in time, balls exist before the curvature they cause when set down. If the ball and the curvature are both eternal, neither caused the other. Which of these is cause and which is effect? I'm not referring to cause of motion, but cause of existence.

upload_2023-1-27_13-38-34.png


If you enter to a room and simply observe a ball resting on the couch, you would know that the ball is the cause of the curvature

Yes, and I would know that the ball existed before the curvature. But what if they were both eternal?

I would also add that “not knowing” which is which doesn’t invalidates the possibility of simultaneous causation

There is no possibility of simultaneous causation, just as there is no possibility of a married bachelor. The phrase cause-and-effect means that one thing preceded the other, just as married means not unmarried. Causing an effect is an action, and actions take place over time. Look at this discussion. Look at these words - create, bring about, next one, result, outcome, etc.. Those all imply a before and an after state. I believe we discussed that when discussing exist, think, and act - three things gods are said to do, all implying a before and an after state. The faithful aren't generally interested in such ideas, since they seem to need that these things not be the case:

upload_2023-1-27_13-52-18.png



I am not saying that the cause is always simultaneous to the effect, I am just saying that it is a possibility

Like married bachelors? I guess they're possible, too. After all, nobody knows everything, right? And with God, all things are possible except for the impossible things like tolerating sin or forgiving it without a blood sacrifice. And in heaven, anything is possible since it's said to be immaterial. When you're immaterial, up gets to be down and effect can precede cause. It's as possible as them being simultaneous if one has more imagination than rigor and words like cause and effect don't actually have to mean anything, where truth is anything one wants it to be.

This is the kind of thinking one leaves behind when he masters critical thinking. He becomes analytical. He becomes more precise and his thinking more coherent, like a mathematician or engineer.

It is humans God is communicating with, through a selected human Messenger, so how would you like them to speak?

If you want me to believe that they are channeling a god rather than having delusions, I need the words to contain something that I couldn't have written myself.

This statement just indicates an entire ignorance of the given evidence and the subject matter of religious scriptures.

No, the statement is correct. If it weren't, you could rebut it rather than have to dismiss it out of hand instead.
 
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