According to your understanding, can a male and female deity (do deities even have a gender????) have sex, get pregnant, and together have a baby deity?
In terms of the divine nature or essence, I would have to give a strict
no.
God is regarded by classical theism (of any hue - Jewish, Christian, Islamic) as the supreme spirit and being. The Fourth Lateran Council in 1215 stated quite firmly: "
there exists a certain Supreme Reality, incomprehensible and ineffable...eternal and immeasurable, almighty, unchangeable....absolutely simple essence...one principle of all things, creator of all things invisible and visible...This reality neither begets nor is begotten nor proceeds."
God is genderless in essence: the divine being does not '
beget' as men do in fathering children (save by analogy, as in the Christian theological 'image' of God the Father and Jesus the Son, which is not meant to be literally understood in a biological fashion) and this truism is strictly doctrinal, not only in Catholicism but in all forms of Abrahamic theism. Thus the Qur'an informs us, most succinctly and poetically, in
Surah Al-Ikhlas: "
Say, He is Allah, [who is] One, Allah, the Eternal Refuge. He neither begets nor is born, Nor is there to Him any equivalent."
This Qur'anic declaration of divine unicity and transcendence neatly summarises what I'm intent on addressing in the rest of my post: it makes clear that God does not '
beget'; which is the fundamental character of a human biological male, referring as it does to his generative desire and capacity to reproduce by 'fathering' offspring through fertilization of a human female.
Both the Lateran Council and Qur'anic statements - binding upon Catholics and Muslims respectively - affirm as an unimpeachable truth of faith that this kind of '
male physiognomy' or sexual identity has no applicability to the Supreme Being
However, Christians equally believe in the doctrine of "incarnation" - whereby God became flesh in the body of Jesus at his conception.
And Jesus was physiologically
male (indeed, circumcised as a baby according to the Gospel of Luke in accordance with the Torah) which means that God, in His incarnate state,
did have the capacity to engage in sexual relations and sire offspring, if he had elected to do so. We have no evidence from the first century, however, which can be read as indicative that Jesus fathered any children in his life - but he certainly had the 'means' or rathrer equipment to do it.
So the answer is also a strict "
yes" in this latter sense, courtesy of Jesus (God incarnate in the flesh).
