Because fine tuning is a subjective criteria,
It is not subjetive.
FT simply means that atoms, molecules, stars, planets (and other stuff required for life) can only exist within a narrow range of values on different constants and initial conditions.
For example if gravity would have been 1% stronger, the whole universe would have collapsed in to a black hole shortly after the big bang. (therefore no atoms, no molecules, no stars, no planets and therefore no life)
This is 100%
objective, one (well scientists) can determine
objectively what would happen if gravity would have been stronger, we can determine
objectively that atoms, molecules etc. can´t exist in a black hole, and we can determine
objectively that we can have life without molecules
for example if the universe is so fine tuned, why is it so hostile everywhere except here where we have evolved to exist.
That is a good question, but starwman, FT simply means that life permitting values are narrow.
If you want to claim that God doesn’t exist because most of the universe is hostile to life….. go ahead, develop your argument, but this has noting to do with FT and your argument (even if sound) would. Not affect any of the premises of the FT argument
Premise 1: The fine-tuning of the universe is due either to necessity, chance, or design.
Premise 2: The fine-tuning of the universe is not due to necessity.
Premise 3: The fine-tuning of the universe is not due to chance.
Conclusion: Therefore, the fine-tuning of the universe is due to a designer.
As you can note, it doesnt matter if you show that 99.99999% of the universe is hostile to life, ………. None of the premises would be affected.
I have not changed the criteria, only asked you why do you consider this evidence in spite of it's general inapplicability
We are looking for objective things that all can agree upon, not things that we "feel".
Ok, so nothing in the FT argument is based on what we feel.
So I would appreciate if you star your post with “yes Leroy you where correct, and I was wrong the FT of the universe is not subjective, but rather an objective property of the universe.
And given that I have my doubts on weather if you understand the argument or not , you have to explain to me the argument with your own words
When I say FT argument I am referring to the version of the argument that William lane Craig proposes…………….. it is perfectly valid to say “ohh no idea Leroy, I have never heard about that argument”