Anyway, here's one example of a contradiction which I mentioned just recently. In Mark, the earliest gospel, Jesus is simply a young Jewish male until he's baptized by JtB; Mark 1:11
and a voice came from heaven, “Thou art my beloved Son; with thee I am well pleased.”
This (as Acts 13:33 affirms) alludes to Psalm 2:7 (of King David):
I will tell of the decree of the LORD: He said to me, “You are my son, today I have begotten you.
The same idea is found in 2 Samuel 7:14 (of David):
I will be his father, and he shall be my son.
and Psalm 89:26 (again of David)
He shall cry to me, ‘Thou art my Father, my God, and the Rock of my salvation.’ 27 And I will make him the first-born, the highest of the kings of the earth.
So the Jesus of Mark is a human adopted by God as his son in accordance with Jewish tradition.
By contrast, in Luke, perhaps ten years later than Mark, Mary is impregnated by the Holy Ghost, that is, by divine insemination in the Greek tradition. This raises all sorts of vexatious questions about the source of Jesus' Y chromosome ─ Jesus is theologically 'fully human' so he must have had a Y chromosome, and Mary, being theologically pure womanhood, didn't. Mark's version avoids all that silliness; but by the time the question could be clearly expressed, it was a millennium or so too late, and Greek insemination for Jesus had found its way into the creeds.
That seems plain as day to me: there are two versions provided, one Jewish and one Greek, and the bishops preferred the latter.
What's your take?