Thats an English breakdown in my opinion. For Example Jesus says "I AM" (Ego Eimi) in other parts and the English translators add the word "He" as in "I Am" he. I remember that in a JW bible called the NWT that they listed it as "I have been" then added some Greek Grammer that didnt exist in the Greek to support it. Anyways, you are missing my point, because i personally believe no matter how many bible passage are changed or altered one way or the other, there are many more unseen that point Jesus as Jehovah or YHWH.
I don't see what's so "English" about it, the grammar issue is the same in the Greek, the English is just the xplanation. The NWT is not the only one to do this. Trinitarians like Goodspeed and Moffatt and others have as well. This common myth that only JWs write it like that needs to end. The English translation "I am he" is a way of saying even among Trinitarians "Umm, please don't abuse this concept of "I am" to mean he's saying "I am I am" or of acknowledging the actual meaning of that phrase. What you're doing is using a Theological case to get around the basics of the grammar. It would have to be "I am I am", not just saying "I am", and the tense of the verb is "I have been" in John 8:58, and the name itself is "I shall be". Those are the basics. No amount of Theological explanation will get around the basic grammar. The Theology must be based ON the grammar, not the other way around.
It is my understanding that only the one who is the Great "I AM" holds that power.
Let me get this straight, you think there were no miracle workers whatsoever throughout the OT who weren't God in the flesh or do I misunderstand you?
That is why when Jesus said " I AM" they all fell down.
No they fell down because this was the great and powerful miracle worker/"sorcerer" they had heard about.
Why then and no where else?
Because they had never seen this miracle worker before. Why did Moses not fall down at the name when he was told it? Was he more prepared?
Because Jesus was fulfilling his own prophesy when he said that when he is betrayed by Judas that you will believe that I AM. (Ego Eimi)
Again, he would have to say "I am I am" for your point to be valid. The name "I am" is a name, it's not a way of saying "I am God", it's a name. You'd have to say "I am I am".
Then Jesus is betrayed at John 18:6 and shows them his true power when he says I Am (Ego Eimi) and everyone falls to the ground as Every knee will bow when revealed or unvieled.
They drew to the ground.
Why do you think practically every translations adds the He there? Are they not Trintarian enough? Are these Trinitarian translations trying to hide a key Trinity verse for some reason?
That is your freedom, just as we all have. However, ask yourself why when Jesus said (Ego Eimi) I AM, did everyone fall down to him?
Easily answered. This was the great and powerful Jesus revealing himself.
What was Jesus Revealing and why right after the words (Ego Eimi) John 18:6 ?
That he was Jesus of Nazareth. Read the passage. Has nothing to do with revealing He was God.
Also ask yourself, why didnt everyone change their mind knowing something very powerfull just happend? Maybe we shouldnt take Jesus in... (because their unbelief is very strong)
Why didn't everyone change their mind indeed. Because they weren't acknowledging that this was God, they were acknowledging that this was the great and mighty miracle working Jesus they had heard about.
ill keep trying until you get it... (Joke) HAHA
What I get is that your arguments are full of holes. Would you consider the possibility of "getting" what I am saying or does it only go one way?