The word "Gentile" was not used at that time because "Jew" was not yet used, and a "Gentile" is a non-"Jew". However, the people who descended from Abraham via God's promise were called "Jews", and it is only they that use circumcision on the 8th day after birth. Gentiles generally don't since they are not required. It is clear that you really do not even get close to understanding both the Law and also the Abrahamic Covenant and how it does or does not apply and to whom.
Nothing short of judgmental and condescending clap-trap.
The meaning of the name "Abraham", is father of the people, and people would refer to the nations, such as the Gentiles. It did not refer to "Jews", as there was no designation such as "Jews". And when exactly did Moses circumcise his son, or to be more accurate, when did his Gentile wife circumcise Mose's son?
Since when does the testimony of the prophets, such as Zechariah 13:8-9 become "clap-trap"?
As a result of his obedience, God changes his name to Abraham, meaning 'father of the people'. The ultimate test of Abraham's obedience, however, comes in Genesis 22 when he is asked to sacrifice his son by Sarah - Isaac.Jun 23, 2009
BBC - Religions - Judaism: Abraham
www.bbc.co.uk/religion/religions/judaism/history/abraham_1.shtml