dust1n
Zindīq
And the stories in the Torah were penned by the 'eyewitnesses' who saw the events for themselves.
....source?
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And the stories in the Torah were penned by the 'eyewitnesses' who saw the events for themselves.
Don't be silly.And the stories in the Torah were penned by the 'eyewitnesses' who saw the events for themselves.
....source?
You have no clue what Torah is, you asked where did you get the passage, well the passage is from Torah. I neither expressed my view on it. It really doesn't matter what the Quran says about it, it is irrelevant here.
the difference is that the stories written in the Quran were written by people who lived thousands of years after the Torah was written. And the stories in the Torah were penned by the 'eyewitnesses' who saw the events for themselves.
The Torah, and the stories you speak of, were written around 1500 BCE... Mohammad wasnt even born until the 600's CE...thats over 2,000 years later....and he wasnt even the one who wrote the Quran.
Why do you believe that the stories in the Quran are more accurate in truth, then the stories written by the eyewitnesses?
I do believe the Torah is from God, yes.Look, If you believe that Torah came from God, you must acknowledge the divinity of its scripture. For God, everything we say or do is recorded with him, he is the witness to all and so are all the angels who bring His message to humanity( If you believe in angels).
How do Torah believers pride themselves with the belief that divine scripture only came to jews? (just a question)Is it pride that makes them believe that ONLY 'they' are the chosen ones out of all humanity and the rest of the divine books are man made?
If that was so, then why doesn't any other man written fable contain the references to God, the prophets and the Angels? why are some things common among the divine books and extremely uncommon in all of the non-divine literature? Why do stories of the Prophets get a mention in all divine books and not repeated/inspired by man made literature whether it was shakespear or charles dickens?
If Man was really able to 'think up the unseen God, the Unseen angels and demons' then why does any oldest of the old religion/ faith or belief, not explain or point to the existence of One God, angels and the devil in the way that is only present in the divine text?
According to a man's pride, a man's 'written' has to be distinctively different from any other writing read/present before his to claim all intellectual rights on it. How can anyone copy somebody else's work to call it their own when they could easily deliberately attempt to make it extremely different and irrelevant to the previous divine texts, in order to claim 'the chosen ones'?
What limited the perception of man to explain God in buddhism, which dates back to 5th century i guess and Islam dates back to 6th century( and christianity and judaism existed much before).(by limited i do not mean limited, i just mean why is it so very different if divine scripture was indeed man inspired?)
Different non-divine concepts have existed throughout the history of the world and all (or most) of them centre upon the person who introduced that idea and his teachings.
Why do none of the Prophets claim the divine text as their own and why do they all assign it as God's word?