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Why didn't Moses punish Aaron for the Golden Calf?

You have no clue what Torah is, you asked where did you get the passage, well the passage is from Torah. I neither expressed my view on it. It really doesn't matter what the Quran says about it, it is irrelevant here.

I think its relevent , we had present our point of view.If i think if somebody is wrong somewhere , i had to correct them if i can , If you donot agree with its its your own decision and right. You can believe your own and we can our.

We believe Prophet Haroon alisalm to be innocent , pure and we love them and respective them.
 

Starsoul

Truth
the difference is that the stories written in the Quran were written by people who lived thousands of years after the Torah was written. And the stories in the Torah were penned by the 'eyewitnesses' who saw the events for themselves.

The Torah, and the stories you speak of, were written around 1500 BCE... Mohammad wasnt even born until the 600's CE...thats over 2,000 years later....and he wasnt even the one who wrote the Quran.

Why do you believe that the stories in the Quran are more accurate in truth, then the stories written by the eyewitnesses?

Look, If you believe that Torah came from God, you must acknowledge the divinity of its scripture. For God, everything we say or do is recorded with him, he is the witness to all and so are all the angels who bring His message to humanity( If you believe in angels).

How do Torah believers pride themselves with the belief that divine scripture only came to jews? (just a question)Is it pride that makes them believe that ONLY 'they' are the chosen ones out of all humanity and the rest of the divine books are man made?

If that was so, then why doesn't any other man written fable contain the references to God, the prophets and the Angels? why are some things common among the divine books and extremely uncommon in all of the non-divine literature? Why do stories of the Prophets get a mention in all divine books and not repeated/inspired by man made literature whether it was shakespear or charles dickens?

According to a man's pride, a man's 'written' has to be distinctively different from any other writing read/present before his to claim all intellectual rights on it. How can anyone copy somebody else's work to call it their own when they could easily deliberately attempt to make it extremely different and irrelevant to the previous divine texts, in order to claim 'the chosen ones'?

If Man was really able to 'think up the unseen God, the Unseen angels and demons' then why does any oldest of the old religion/ faith or belief, not explain or point to the existence of One God, angels and the devil in the way that is only present in the divine text?

What limited the perception of man to explain God in buddhism, which dates back to 5th century i guess and Islam dates back to 6th century( and christianity and judaism existed much before).(by limited i do not mean limited, i just mean why is it so very different if divine scripture was indeed man inspired?)

Different non-divine concepts have existed throughout the history of the world and all (or most) of them centre upon the person who introduced that idea and his teachings.

Why do none of the Prophets claim the divine text as their own and why do they all assign it as God's word?
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Look, If you believe that Torah came from God, you must acknowledge the divinity of its scripture. For God, everything we say or do is recorded with him, he is the witness to all and so are all the angels who bring His message to humanity( If you believe in angels).

How do Torah believers pride themselves with the belief that divine scripture only came to jews? (just a question)Is it pride that makes them believe that ONLY 'they' are the chosen ones out of all humanity and the rest of the divine books are man made?
I do believe the Torah is from God, yes.
I also believe that the reason why we can be sure that God only used the Jews was because he said so himself. He promised Abraham that through his descendants the Messiah would come and the Isrealites would become Gods 'special property'

There is no reason to think that God had other nations whom he was sending prophets to.

If that was so, then why doesn't any other man written fable contain the references to God, the prophets and the Angels? why are some things common among the divine books and extremely uncommon in all of the non-divine literature? Why do stories of the Prophets get a mention in all divine books and not repeated/inspired by man made literature whether it was shakespear or charles dickens?

If Man was really able to 'think up the unseen God, the Unseen angels and demons' then why does any oldest of the old religion/ faith or belief, not explain or point to the existence of One God, angels and the devil in the way that is only present in the divine text?

The fact that other writings contain references to a god or gods or prophets or angels does not mean that they are from the God of the bible. All nations had their religions. But none of those ancient religions carried the name of God Jehovah. Only the Isrealites had Jehovah as their God. Egypt had gods too, but they did not recognize Jehovah.

The God of the bible proved himself to be a real tangible God who was interested and willing to act in behalf of his people. The gods of the nations did not exhibit such abilities because they were 'false' gods...they were made up by the people who worshiped them.

According to a man's pride, a man's 'written' has to be distinctively different from any other writing read/present before his to claim all intellectual rights on it. How can anyone copy somebody else's work to call it their own when they could easily deliberately attempt to make it extremely different and irrelevant to the previous divine texts, in order to claim 'the chosen ones'?

Im not sure what you are asking here. Do you mean to ask why the jews can claim to be the chosen ones? Or are you skeptical that anyone can claim such a thing??


I will try to address your questions, but im not completely understanding what you are asking.

What limited the perception of man to explain God in buddhism, which dates back to 5th century i guess and Islam dates back to 6th century( and christianity and judaism existed much before).(by limited i do not mean limited, i just mean why is it so very different if divine scripture was indeed man inspired?)

Well Buddha never claimed to be inspired by God for starters. Buddhism isnt really a religion...its more of a philosophy.

Different non-divine concepts have existed throughout the history of the world and all (or most) of them centre upon the person who introduced that idea and his teachings.

Why do none of the Prophets claim the divine text as their own and why do they all assign it as God's word?

the prophets of the Old Testament were God fearing men who were worshipers of Jehovah. They were often called to be prophets unwillingly and suffered much for the messages they were sent to deliver. The fact is that they acknowledged that the message was from God and they wrote it as such...they did not seek fame for themselves which is why they spoke little of themselves.
 
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