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Who designed the designer?

mainliner

no one can de-borg my fact's ...NO-ONE!!
The truth is the light which goes into deep reality of how light is made up of different colours in the visable light spectrum.

light is energy and is also invisible...... Ultra violet....Micro waves...x- ray..... All the colours from the other end of the light spectrum of colour.

the invisable light with is still colour has energy.

void or blackness is just invisible light full of energy.

its not a matter of who designed the designer......its a matter of what .
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
I will take that as a 'no' then.

That is easier than addressing flaws.


If you cannot clearly articulate any failings

Failing 1: Your definition of determinism is simply wrong


What is unclear about this?


Failing 2: You offer nothing remotely resembling evidence for your claims about the ways in which a deterministic universe somehow entails that the state of any system be determined at or after some particular time, which is to say that you throw determinism out the window and adopt an idiomatic definition in order to defeat an argument that never existed but expose the failures of your own.


If this was too complicated for you, let me simplify. You have claimed, without any indication that you have reason or evidence to support you, that in a "deterministic universe" the future has in "some sense" (in what sense you don't specify or define) "already happened. This is nonsense and is a baseless assumption you haven't ever supported but rely upon.


What about this is unclear?


Failing 3: 3) The very fact that you cannot formulate a proof nor recognize as such any actual proof of anything suggests you are not relying on logic but upon the arguments others have presented that I have seen many times but which you do not actually understand.


I would have thought this clearest of all save the first, but I guess not. A proof does not consist of a series of claims, but requires that the conclusion follow from whatever premise(s) or theorem (or lemma, corollary, proposition, etc.) make-up what one is trying to prove. Your approach to proof is to make claims, assume them to be true, and then say you've proved something because you've assumed it. Observe:

full

(from Sobel's Logic and Theism)


Those are examples of legitimate proof forms. However, they are only “proofs” in so far as (once again) the premises are true and the conclusions follow from them. For example criticisms of the proof you stole but didn’t understand enough to defend nor even represent accurately, see e.g., both the uploaded/attached and the following:

Moreland on the Impossibility of Traversing the Infinite: A Critique

A Critique of the Kalam Cosmological Argument


Then check out the sources I provided on what proofs require just to be called proofs, even if they are completely wrong.

Writing many words & sentences that may appear to be correct, does not mean you are correct in your statements. You seem to be more willing to confuse than offer clear replies.

Funny, considering this is coming from someone who stole another’s work, failed to use accurate notation, and has consistently asserted that because he claims thing they’re proof of something.
 

Attachments

  • Infinite Regress and the Cosmological Argument.pdf
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  • Craig, Mackie, and the Kalam Cosmological Argument.pdf
    1.1 MB · Views: 89
  • Cosmological Arguments.pdf
    143.8 KB · Views: 23

mainliner

no one can de-borg my fact's ...NO-ONE!!
The truth is the light which goes into deep reality of how light is made up of different colours in the visable light spectrum.

light is energy and is also invisible...... Ultra violet....Micro waves...x- ray..... All the colours from the other end of the light spectrum of colour.

the invisable light with is still colour has energy.

void or blackness is just invisible light full of energy.

its not a matter of who designed the designer......its a matter of what .
read this and stop arguing
 

mainliner

no one can de-borg my fact's ...NO-ONE!!
Putting the most complex first is just illogical. Simple first, complex later tends to be how the universe works.
exactly........thats what i mentioned in my post above.

the COMPLEXITY of white light split into SIMPLE colours and energy ...... Correct :)

look at the designers ultra complex creations and break them down into simpler creations like atoms and molecules ....... And you'll start to understand the child like Lego brick built simplicity of creation we know today :)

Hope this makes sense :)
 

Salek Atesh

Active Member
If we simply define God to be the uncaused cause, then we can say it proves the existence of God but not those attributes associated with a personal God.

Or even the attributes of an impersonal God. It does not prove the Cause is all-powerful, or all-knowing, or sentient. Defining "God" this way is unhelpful to any meaningful discourse, as it is fundamentally different from the way anyone else defines God, encompassing only one of the attributes encompassed by the definition of God.

It would be like... defining the word "God" as power. Since God is Powerful. Then one proves power exists, which is easy enough, and uses that to prove that "God" exists. This is technically correct, but since the definition of God used is not the same as the one used in all theological discussions, it has no purpose.
 

mainliner

no one can de-borg my fact's ...NO-ONE!!
It's hard to pin point the exact organization.

My favorite rendition is mythological and from Norse myth;

Before Man was conceived the Earth, Midgard, was dominated by Dragons.

But my interpretation makes lemons lemon-aide in a forgiving sense, the myth also includes the race of mythological Dwarves; who haven't been proven to exist. I consider the Neanderthal the Dwarves of Germanic myth and the Giants, giant humanbeings. Anyone could go the distance and make sense out of jabberwocky and it more than likely will not play out to favor what is now fantasy and myth.

But my interpretations would make the "Gods" incomprehensibly ancient or the legends that old - tens of thousands to hundreds of thousands of years old.

As far as design, I think it was a relatively new concept where older myth's would have been more primordial accepting life was born out of nature - in a life from non-life sense (Abiogenesis - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia It's barely worth mentioning and I'm not trying to improvise on what I do not know, I'm not a codger like that.

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My ideals on what was mentioned in Norse Myth in particular would make the Gods hundreds of thousands of years old, if you can even ponder millions. - It's totally preposterous from a mortals view.

I believe it's a fact though that Norse Myth was absolutely ancient though - among other myth.


Modern ideas in theism are the problem - not ancient ones. Ancients knew the world was ancient but didn't know the exact idea - as did they understand Nature - not deified - gave birth to life.

Believing an ancient peoples discovered immortality shouldn't be that otherworldly to understand. It's also improbable to suppose something new without substantial proof.
these norse myths sound exactly like a lucid dreamers dream.........google " what do lucid dreamers dream of"
 

Phil A. Seaou

New Member
You're locked in a repetitious pattern of thought - a recursive, fractal-like algorithm that keeps you locked into the same loop, over and over.

Break out of the oven, you're well done. Why does the designer need to have a designer? You're applying the very laws the designer made back onto the designer, as if the designer would be bound by them. Why would the designer be bound by those laws, considering that the designer owns them?
 

mainliner

no one can de-borg my fact's ...NO-ONE!!
Break out of the oven, you're well done. Why does the designer need to have a designer? You're applying the very laws the designer made back onto the designer, as if the designer would be bound by them. Why would the designer be bound by those laws, considering that the designer owns them?
with a mind capable of thinking far beyond are level of thought ( for now anyway )..... Im quite sure the designer designed HER self ( not with out struggle though ) :)
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
For every two things, there is a relationship of sorts

The relationship is such that either both things depend on something 'outside' of themselves (in the prior example, the dependency would involve space, a separate thing) or one of the things is caused by the other


1) Wrong. Paired photons are nonlocally but causally connected. If two were “a million miles apart via space”, their “relation” depend upon space as in your example, but their dynamics would also depend upon one another as the actions of both are caused by both at the same time.

2) Spacetime precludes any dependence upon space and makes causal relations such as those you speak of either wrong, irrelevant, or flawed.

3) QM does the same.

4) Relations in logic & mathematics are special kinds of mappings or functions (or rather, mappings are special kinds of relations) that “relate” one of (possibly infinite) elements in a set X with one of (possibly infinite) elements either in the same set or in another set Y. For example, given the set F of all fathers f and the set C of all children c, fRc can mean “f is the father of c” where f & c are particular elements of the sets F and C, respectively. Relations on a set (i.e., not between two sets) are important enough that they amount to most of what most people ever learn about mathematics. For example, the relation R on N (or other sets of numbers: rationals, reals, complex, etc.) defined s.t. for any pair a & b of elements of N, aRb is equivalent to bRa iff [if and only if] R is symmetric. Alternatively, for any relation R if aRb implies bRa, then R is a symmetric relation.


Given any finite set S, the number of possible relations is
gif.latex
. The proof of this follows from the proof that the power set of any finite set A has a cardinality 2^|A|. Because the power set is all possible subsets of A and a relation R on A consists of all possible pairs (x,y) ∈ A x A, the number of relations is |P(A)| * |P(A)| or the square of the cardinality of the power set of A.

5) For every infinite set אn, any relation R on that set is also infinite, though not necessarily greater than the set (e.g., a relation on N → N x N is one-to-one).

6) There is no relation R such that for any pair of elements (m,n), from any set M or sets M & N, mRn can be defined to require any element other than the pair (m,n)

7) Let R be a causal/causality relationship on the set of U (assume for arguments sake that U is formally defined and causality is sufficiently rigorously defined to express as a relation on U, despite the fact that in the proof neither of these things are in fact true). If it is possible to have mRn OR nRm, than R is symmetric. Therefore, for any elements whatsoever in U, to say “a causes be” is equivalent to saying “b causes a”. Whatever disagreements exist among scientists, philosophers, and so forth, such a definition is so completely antithetical to causality that we can safely reject it.

8) For the relation R on U to have meaning, we’d have to know whether U is finite (in which case we can know exactly how many relations are possible) or infinite. We don’t.


Take for example the colour red, and the song of a bird. It might seem as though there is no relationship between them. However, something makes the colour red not the song of a bird and the song of a bird not the colour red.

Ignoring the conflations of properties with things, the relationship in question is non-equivalence. Put differently, given a set S and a relation R on S, R is antisymmetric if for any (x,y) ∈ S, aRb and bRa implies a=b (i.e., aRb != to bRa unless a and b are the same thing or are equal/equivalent). However, as the causality relation was already defined as symmetric (and thus also necessarily transitive and reflexive, meaning it is an equivalence relation), for any pair of elements (m,n) ∈ U, if m is not equivalent to n (i.e., they are different elements of U), then m causes n and vice versa.


There cannot be two uncaused causes, since, as stated, for every two things, there is a relationship between the two things.

As stated, for every two things there are multiple relationships, and there is nothing whatsoever to limit the number of relations to those given (particularly as they are not well-defined, nor is the set U, etc.). However, if all the notational and logical problems were fixed, the entirety of the proof would depend upon the assumption that for the set U there exists whatever relations we end up with were we to fix mess that makes up the set, its elements, and R, we’d end up with a premise. In other words, if there were no problems with the way R and U and so forth are defined, this isn’t a proof but an assumption.


Observe:

Let U be the set of all unicorns. For every (m,n) ∈ U, mRn means m is the god of n.


I’ve proven that I can write letters and use some math notation, but I haven’t proven anything relating to my argument, including that unicorns exist.


An uncaused cause implies no dependency

However, you have defined your relation as two relations. Nothing can be implied from this. Moreover, the closest you come to “proving” that their must exist either a causal or non-causal relationship between any two elements of the set U is by defining a “non-equivalence’ relation on U such that two different elements are different. This has nothing to do with dependency nor causality.


More importantly, the set U consists of “concepts that exist in reality”. Imagining that this were not basically a contradiction in terms (concepts don’t exist in reality by definition, as they are abstract classes to which things in reality belong; the concept “chair” doesn’t exist in reality, but multiple chairs do, each an instance of the concept but none being the concept), we’re left with a problem. Properties exist in reality. Consider the property of identity, i.e., that a thing is itself (you are you and not someone else, and I am me). Your non-equivalence relation doesn’t hold here, but neither is there something that causes me to be me or you to be you.



Furthermore, there must be at least one uncaused cause because otherwise, we would have a universe of just dependencies on other things and this cannot exist.

A perfect example of why this is just a series of claims. The assertion “this cannot exist” is not anywhere shown to be true, in part because your ill-defined set and your relation that is really two ill-defined relations do not indicate anything about dependency or causes. Your verbal argument simply asserts nonsense about these things but doesn’t show that they are true (whatever it is you mean dependency and relation to mean, everything you say about them is assumed not proven).
 
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That is easier than addressing flaws. ...

I do not wish to get into a heated argument over this discussion and do sincerely have the best of intentions for you. Please give me your definition of determinism if you think mine is wrong.

In reference to your perceived second failing in my argument, by definition (my definition), determinism is as such. This was one of the proof assumptions.

In reference to your perceived third failing in my argument, there are many forms for writing a proof. I have come across many mathematical proofs and they do not all take the terse form you have shown. In one of the academic papers you cited, a prose form is given for a proof.

I am afraid I believe you are wrong with your belief that I have used faulty argumentation.

I disagree with 'concrete actual infinities' being possible, which means that there is no point in dealing with this paper 'Moreland on the Impossibility of Traversing the Infinite: A Critique' since it assumes that possibility.

As written before, infinity appears to be more of a mathematical concept & not so applicable to reality. How can we prove this? I do not know. I have not formally studied such things. However, below is one idea.

Suppose you have two objects in the universe that are an infinite distance apart. However, what if there is another object that is one metre further apart to the second object. Yet, how do you express the distance between the first object and the third object? Is it an infinite distance apart plus one metre?

In relation to the infinite library cited in 'A Critical Examination of the Kalam Cosmological Argument', the fact that such a library never exists in reality, probably indicates that it is not possible.

It is fascinating to see William Lane Craig's argument because it appears some of my arguments mirror his, although he has more detail and has published academic papers on the matter.

I recognise that some of my arguments have connection to the Kalam Cosmological argument but it is only now that I am learning about it.

In reference to infinitely dividing a chunk of space in 'A Critical Examination of the Kalam Cosmological Argument', perhaps it might be worth considering whether there can exist any ruler that can be used to measure infinitely small distances. Can we divide a lump of any kind of matter into an infinitely small amount (except in a thought experiment)?

In reference to your claim that I stole another's work, I'm afraid it is not true. If someone else has prior to me, developed arguments closely mirrored to my own, in greater detail, this does not mean I stole the work. I am very happy to have discovered this person William Lane Craig since my thinking seems to resonate with his.
 
Or even the attributes of an impersonal God. It does not prove the Cause is all-powerful, or all-knowing, or sentient. Defining "God" this way is unhelpful to any meaningful discourse, as it is fundamentally different from the way anyone else defines God, encompassing only one of the attributes encompassed by the definition of God.
...

As a corollary to the proof, I have shown that the Cause is omnipotent here. Since the Cause must be good, goodness itself, and is omnipotent, then we can believe the Cause is all-wise. The Cause is good because evil is contrary to the Cause (in the realm of the abuse of free-will) by the definition of evil. As for being all-knowing, I cannot think of how to demonstrate this, but if I have managed to demonstrate the other attributes correctly, then perhaps it is not too difficult to demonstrate this attribute.

Thank you for your feedback.
 

mainliner

no one can de-borg my fact's ...NO-ONE!!
Some questions:
What religion do you follow?
Do you believe in the Big Bang?
Do you believe in Evolution by Natural Selection?
:) im no religion my friend ....i don't like to take sides......theres to much confliction .

i believe in the subconscious world of energy and light ........ As its always been and beyond eternity .

evolutions is a fact in this world you just have to look at our appendix for that. :)...... We evolve to match our surroundings.

the light and energy in the void which is just black light , no hell , and full of unevolved light.....became life:).


crazy i know but brain tells me different;)
 
I have tried to answer some of your objections below.

...but their dynamics would also depend upon one another as the actions of both are caused by both at the same time.

Would not the cause then not be the formulae governing the dynamics, and the effects the actions of the two photons? Am I wrong about this?

2) Space-time precludes any dependence upon space and makes causal relations such as those you speak of either wrong, irrelevant, or flawed.

If there is no space, is it not the case that there is no space-time? Please give an example of your latter point which you have not explained.

For example, given the set F of all fathers f and the set C of all children c, fRc can mean “f is the father of c” where f & c are particular elements of the sets F and C, respectively.

...
6) There is no relation R such that for any pair of elements (m,n), from any set M or sets M & N, mRn can be defined to require any element other than the pair (m,n)

I am familiar with the mathematics you refer to.

I may be getting the mathematics incorrect but can you explain why I cannot say the following?:

Given the set F of all fathers and the set C of all children c, fRc means "f is the father of c where c is the cousin of Peter"?

If I can say this, then surely, mRn can be defined to require another element other than the pair (m, n), in this case the element Peter.


However, as the causality relation was already defined as symmetric (and thus also necessarily transitive and reflexive, meaning it is an equivalence relation), for any pair of elements (m,n) ∈ U, if m is not equivalent to n (i.e., they are different elements of U), then m causes n and vice versa...

It should be m causes n or vice versa.

As stated, for every two things there are multiple relationships, and there is nothing whatsoever to limit the number of relations to those given...

When I write:

"there cannot be two uncaused causes, since, as stated, for every two things, there is a
relationship between the two things
"

I do not mean there is exactly one relationship.


However, you have defined your relation as two relations.

In the following:

Given the set A of all ancestors a and the set D of all descendants d, aRd means "a is an ancestor of d".

can I not rephrase it as follows (implying two relations)?:

Given the set A of all ancestors a and the set D of all descendants d, aRd means "a is a female ancestor of d" or "a is a male ancestor of d".

I think this is more or less what I have done. R is a relationship. That relationship may involve causality, or not. Anyway, if there is a problem with this, it is not difficult to amend the proof/demonstration.

concepts don’t exist in reality by definition, as they are abstract classes to which things in reality belong; the concept “chair” doesn’t exist in reality, but...

The concept “chair” exists in reality in a metaphysical way, but the concept "invisible chair" (lets suppose) does not exist in reality in a metaphysical way. In relation to your chair example, think about whether the law of gravity exists in reality, or is it simply that gravitational forces exist between two concrete things in reality? What is reality?

The assertion “this cannot exist” is not anywhere shown to be true, ...

I take this to be self-evident. I have answered this elsewhere:

viole said: ↑
....
Consider U = {a, b, c} so that a causes b, b causes c and c causes a. Premises are satisfied, yet you have D = {}.
----------------------------------------
My belief is that such a situation cannot exist a bit like how you cannot have circular reasoning. You need a first cause to 'get everything started'. Mathematically, you might be able to express it, but that does not mean that it makes sense.

I wish you the best of intentions.
 
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