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WHERE IS THE SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS GOD'S 4th COMMANDMENT IS ABOLISHED?

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Well that would be a lie or you do not know what the bible teaches. I am not sure which one though so posting this in good faith as a help to you.

JESUS AND THE APOSTLES OBEYED AND TAUGHT THE SABBATH saying...
  • It is lawful to do good on the Sabbath - Matthew 12:1-8; 10-12; 24:20; Mark 3:1-5; Luke 6:1-10; 13:14-16; 14:1-5; John 7:22-23; 9:14; Mark 1:21; Mark 6:2; Luke 4:16; 31; Luke 14:1; 23:56)
  • Jesus made the Sabbath for all mankind - Hebrews 1:2; John 1:1-3; 14; Ephesians 3:9; Colossians 1:16-17; Mark 2:27
  • Jesus is Lord (creator) and owner of the Sabbath - Mark 2:28
  • If you do not believe and follow God you cannot enter His Sabbath rest - Hebrews 4
  • It is one of God’s 10 commandments we break it we are guilty or breaking all - James 2:8-12
  • Breaking it is sin - 1 John 3:4
  • God’s true followers keep it Holy as God commanded - Revelation 14:12; 22:14; Ezekiel 20:20
  • Jesus is our example and he kept the Sabbath - Matthew 12:1-8; 10-12; 24:20; Mark 3:1-5; Luke 6:1-10; 13:14-16; 14:1-5; John 7:22-23; 9:14; Mark 1:21; Mark 6:2; Luke 4:16; 31; Luke 14:1; 23:56; John 2:6; Matthew 16:24; 1 Corinthians 11:1; Ephesians 5:1-21; Peter 2:20-22
  • Jesus taught that his people would continue keeping the Sabbath just prior to the second coming in the last days - Matthew 24:20; Mark 13:18
  • The Apostle and disciples all kept the Sabbath after the death and resurrection of Jesus - Acts of the Apostles 13:14; 13:27; 13:44; 15:21; 16:13; 17:2; 18:4; Revelation 1:10 Jesus taught that God's people would be still keeping the Sabbath well after the death and resurrection - Matthew 24:20; Mark 13:18.
CONCLUSION: Jesus and all the apostles taught and obeyed Gods 10 commandments and kept and obeyed Gods Sabbath commandment from a new heart that loves. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that teaches anywhere that Gods Sabbath commandment has been abolished and we are now commanded to keep Sunday as a holy day of rest in honor of the resurrection of Jesus. This is a man-made teaching and tradition that has led many away from God and His Word into breaking the commandments of God against the very warnings of Jesus in Matthew 15:3-9.

Take Care.
64 pages and 1278 posts and not a single scripture in all the New Testament that identifies Sabbath as a commandment that must still be kept.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
IndigoChild5559 said: 64 pages and 1278 posts and not a single scripture in all the New Testament that identifies Sabbath as a commandment that must still be kept.
Your lies are amazing. Try reading the very post you are quoting from next time before posting. You are embarrassing yourself. Lets just post a few out for you to bring home the point...
  • Hebrews 4:9 Therefore it remains for the people of God to keep the Sabbath
  • Matthew 12:12 How much greater is a man than a sheep? Therefore it is legal to do good on the Sabbath
  • Matthew 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the Sabbath day (Lords day).
  • Mark 2:27 The Sabbath was made for man and not man for the Sabbath
  • Mark 2:28 Therefore the son of man is Lord also of the Sabbath day.
  • Matthew 24:20 But pray you that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the Sabbath day (prophecy of the last days)
Again EPIC FAIL on your side.
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Because they were Jewish.
When was Sunday (day of the sun) decreed as the day of rest, when one could not buy or sell, because the markets would be closed, and by whom? What happens to the "nations"/Gentiles, the non Jews, on the day of judgment (the day of the LORD) (Joel 2:31-3:8).
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
When was Sunday (day of the sun) decreed as the day of rest, when one could not buy or sell, because the markets would be closed, and by whom? What happens to the "nations"/Gentiles, the non Jews, on the day of judgment (the day of the LORD) (Joel 2:31-3:8).
In the earliest church, the Lord's Day (Sunday) was NOT considered a day of rest. It was simply the day Christians gathered to break bread. The thinking that the solemnity of the sabbath had been transferred to the Lords day came later in history. I believe that Eusebius said that Sunday was the Sabbath, but don't quote me on that.
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
In the earliest church, the Lord's Day (Sunday) was NOT considered a day of rest. It was simply the day Christians gathered to break bread. The thinking that the solemnity of the sabbath had been transferred to the Lords day came later in history. I believe that Eusebius said that Sunday was the Sabbath, but don't quote me on that.
Eusebius was the man Friday cleric of the Roman Emperor Constantine, who actually printed out 50 bibles, of which the record of only one chapter survives, and it is a book that is not in the current NT canon. It was the Roman emperor Constantine, in the year 321 A.D. who decreed Sunday as the day of rest, in homage to his god, Sol Invictus, who supposedly helped him win the 312 A.D. battle of Milvian Bridge which allowed him to end the Tetrarchy and unite the Western and Eastern Roman empires. In the year 313 AD Constantine had a coin minted with the image of Sol Invictus in homage to Sol as well. According to the NT, it was also one of the 7 days of the week that Paul gathered for breaking bread. Why the first day of the week was pointed out was not made clear, maybe to shill the peasants out of money to supposedly take to the widows in Jerusalem, a city he never returned to after the zealots tried to kill him.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Because they were Jewish.
Perhaps think your argument through before posting. You are promoting teachings of lawlessness. Jesus says in Mark 2:27 that the Sabbath was made for man and not man for the Sabbath. There was no Jew when God made the Sabbath for all mankind on the seventh day of the creation week in Genesis 2:1-3. There was no Jew, no Moses, no Israel, no law and no sin. There was only sinless Adam and Eve before the fall made in the image of God while there was the spoken Words of God given to Gods people before Mt Sinai God made the Sabbath ones of His 10 commandments that the scriptures teach give us the knowledge of what sin is when broken.

Now think your argument through. Are the four gospels only for the Jews? That is in very essence of your same argument here. Can you see how silly your comment is here? Are you trying to argue that the 4 gospels are for the Jews only as well?
  • Hebrews 4:9 Therefore it remains for the people of God to keep the Sabbath
  • Matthew 12:12 How much greater is a man than a sheep? Therefore it is legal to do good on the Sabbath
  • Matthew 12:8 For the Son of man is Lord even of the Sabbath day (Lords day).
  • Mark 2:27 The Sabbath was made for man and not man for the Sabbath
  • Mark 2:28 Therefore the son of man is Lord also of the Sabbath day.
  • Matthew 24:20 But pray you that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the Sabbath day (prophecy of the last days)
Take Care.
 
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3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
In the earliest church, the Lord's Day (Sunday) was NOT considered a day of rest. It was simply the day Christians gathered to break bread. The thinking that the solemnity of the sabbath had been transferred to the Lords day came later in history. I believe that Eusebius said that Sunday was the Sabbath, but don't quote me on that.
There is no scripture in the bible anywhere that teaches Sunday is "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10. Claiming that Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" is simply a man-made teaching and tradition that is unsupported by the scriptures that has led many away from God and His Word into breaking the commandments of God against the very warnings of Jesus in Matthew 15:3-9. It is obvious you do not know God and His word and have missed Gods promised Messiah and Christ in Jesus who is the Saviour of the world.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
There is no scripture in the bible anywhere that teaches Sunday is "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10. Claiming that Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" is simply a man-made teaching and tradition that is unsupported by the scriptures that has led many away from God and His Word into breaking the commandments of God against the very warnings of Jesus in Matthew 15:3-9. It is obvious you do not know God and His word and have missed Gods promised Messiah and Christ in Jesus who is the Saviour of the world.
I am not going to reopen this debate with you, but for those reading this thread, I will say again that the Bible NEVER specifies which day of the week is "The Lord's Day." However, other first and second century Christian writings make it crystal clear that the Lord's Day is Sunday.

Moving on....
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
I am not going to reopen this debate with you, but for those reading this thread, I will say again that the Bible NEVER specifies which day of the week is "The Lord's Day." However, other first and second century Christian writings make it crystal clear that the Lord's Day is Sunday.

Moving on....
Well lets be honest, you have never opened a debate to begin with. You are half correct. The bible never states anywhere that Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day" of Revelation 1:10. Sunday as "the Lords day" is a man-made teaching and traditions that is unsupported by the scriptures. However to make the claims that "the Lords day" is not identified in the scriptures is being deliberately dishonest and untruthful as the day that God claims ownership over is the Sabbath day and this is stated in the scriptures word for word.

SUNDAY WORSHIP IS NOT THE LORD'S DAY

The term "the Lord's day" was used by some in the early Church as a reference to Sunday worship in celebration of the resurrection of Jesus. It comes from a scripture in the bible found in Revelation 1
  • REVELATION 1:10 10, I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet
The Greek words used for the day that JOHN was in the Spirit of is the for Lord's day are
  • REVELATION 1:10 εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος
The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine. This means it is being used as a 'possessive' as ownership or belonging to ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord". It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day". This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly. This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfillment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23
The problem here however is that there is not a single scripture that references Sunday or the first day of the week (bible names for the days of the week) to being "the Lords day" in scripture.
According to the scripture "the Lords day" however can be referenced to "the Sabbath day" of Gods' 4th commandment found in Exodus 20:8-11.
Letting the scriptures answer this question
  • WHAT DAY IS THE LORD'S DAY ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES?
  • MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY
This then promotes a bit of a dilemma for the Church as there is not a single scripture in all of the bible that days "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday. Yet there is many scriptures referencing "the Lords day" or Gods' specific claims to ownership of any particular day to the Sabbath day that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for a memorial of creation (see Genesis 2:1-3) and made one of Gods' 10 commandments (Exodus 20:8-11).
God's "ownership" of the Sabbath day or "Lord's day is also repeated elsewhere as "MY" (ownership of the day as in the Greek used in REVELATION 1:10 κυριακη). Other scriptures in the bible pointing to "the Lords day" as being the Sabbath day...
  • MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY. (the Sabbath day is Lord's day)
  • ISAIAH 58:13-14 [13], If you turn away your foot from the SABBATH, from doing your pleasure on MY HOLY DAY (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day); and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honorable; and shall honor him, not doing your own ways, nor finding your own pleasure, nor speaking your own words: [14], Then shall you delight yourself in the LORD; and I will cause you to ride on the high places of the earth, and feed you with the heritage of Jacob your father: for the mouth of the LORD has spoken it.
  • LEVITICUS 19:30 You shall keep MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day)and reverence my sanctuary: I am the LORD.
  • EZEKIEL 20:12 Moreover also I gave them MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day) to be a sign between me and them, that they might know that I am the LORD that sanctify them.
κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ used in Revelations 1:10 is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day. It does not say that this day is in reference to μιά των σαββάτων which means the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK.
............................

Your challenge here in this OP is to prove from the scriptures alone that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week. If you cannot all you have is a teaching and tradition of men that is not supported in the scriptures. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that refers to Sunday as being "the Lords day". Its seems like you being crystal clear has become fogged up with lies and confusion. There is no scripture in all the bible that states Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day." However the scriptures state that "the Lords day" is the Sabbath day.

Take Care.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
When was Sunday (day of the sun) decreed as the day of rest, when one could not buy or sell, because the markets would be closed, and by whom? What happens to the "nations"/Gentiles, the non Jews, on the day of judgment (the day of the LORD) (Joel 2:31-3:8).
Again, Jewish Law as found in Torah only applies to Jews. However, if you want to observe them as a Gentile, that's all fine & dandy.
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Again, Jewish Law as found in Torah only applies to Jews. However, if you want to observe them as a Gentile, that's all fine & dandy.
Ecclesiastes 12:13 The conclusion, when everything has been heard, is: fear God and keep His commandments, because this applies to every person.

As for "Gentiles"/nations, where do you think Israel/Ephraim, "house of Israel", has been "scattered"?

Ezekiel 36:17Son of man, when the house of Israel was living in their own land, they defiled it by their ways and their deeds; their way before Me was like the uncleanness of a woman in her impurity. 18“Therefore I poured out My wrath on them for the blood which they had shed on the land, because they had defiled it with their idols. 19“Also I scattered them among the nations and they were dispersed throughout the lands. According to their ways and their deeds I judged them. 20“When they came to the nations where they went, they profaned My holy name, because it was said of them, ‘These are the people of the LORD; yet they have come out of His land.’ 21“But I had concern for My holy name, which the house of Israel had profaned among the nations where they went...... 24“For I will take you from the nations, gather you from all the lands and bring you into your own land.

The "house of Israel", Ephraim, remains "scattered" among the nations/Gentiles (Ez 37). It is only Judah, the Jews, who have been revived (Joel 3:1), and yet the nations/Gentiles, remain unjudged (Joel 3:2-8). The nations/Gentiles, to this day, have not been sold into slavery to Judah (Joel 3:8). Your selective reading of the traditions of men does not seem to serve you well.
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
So, you observe all 613 Commandments as found in Torah?
Keeping all of God's "statutes" and "ordinances" will be required of the combined houses of Ephraim/Israel and Judah, after they are given a new heart and spirit, and live on the land given to Jacob, with David as king (Ezekiel 37:28 & Jeremiah 31:31-34). What is required of "every person" to enter into life, is to keep the Commandments. (Matthew 19:17). As for the rest, as in the nations/Gentiles, judgment is coming (Joel 3:2-8 & Jeremiah 30:11).

Ezekiel 37:23 No longer defile themselves with their idols, or with their detestable things, or with any of their transgressions; but I will deliver them from all their dwelling places in which they have sinned, I and will cleanse them. And they will be My people, and I will be their God.
The Davidic Kingdom
24“My servant David will be king over them, and they will all have one shepherd; and they will walk in My ordinances and keep My statutes and observe them. 25“They will live on the land that I gave to Jacob My servant, in which your fathers lived; and they will live on it, they, and their sons and their sons’ sons, forever; and David My servant will be their prince forever. 26“I will make a covenant of peace with them; it will be an everlasting covenant with them. And I will place them and multiply them, and will set My sanctuary in their midst forever. 27“My dwelling place also will be with them; and I will be their God, and they will be My people. 28“And the nations will know that I am the LORD who sanctifies Israel, when My sanctuary is in their midst forever.”’”


All of this is "behind the door" (Matthew 24:33). The "kingdom" has not been set up, and there is no covenant of peace in the land given to Jacob.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
So, you observe all 613 Commandments as found in Torah?

Keeping all of God's "statutes" and "ordinances" will be required of the combined houses of Ephraim/Israel and Judah, after they are given a new heart and spirit, and live on the land given to Jacob, with David as king (Ezekiel 37:28 & Jeremiah 31:31-34). What is required of "every person" to enter into life, is to keep the Commandments. (Matthew 19:17). As for the rest, as in the nations/Gentiles, judgment is coming (Joel 3:2-8 & Jeremiah 30:11).

Ezekiel 37:23 No longer defile themselves with their idols, or with their detestable things, or with any of their transgressions; but I will deliver them from all their dwelling places in which they have sinned, I and will cleanse them. And they will be My people, and I will be their God.
The Davidic Kingdom
24“My servant David will be king over them, and they will all have one shepherd; and they will walk in My ordinances and keep My statutes and observe them. 25“They will live on the land that I gave to Jacob My servant, in which your fathers lived; and they will live on it, they, and their sons and their sons’ sons, forever; and David My servant will be their prince forever. 26“I will make a covenant of peace with them; it will be an everlasting covenant with them. And I will place them and multiply them, and will set My sanctuary in their midst forever. 27“My dwelling place also will be with them; and I will be their God, and they will be My people. 28“And the nations will know that I am the LORD who sanctifies Israel, when My sanctuary is in their midst forever.”’”


All of this is "behind the door" (Matthew 24:33). The "kingdom" has not been set up, and there is no covenant of peace in the land given to Jacob.

Gobbledygook.
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Gobbledygook.
Go ahead and explain Ezekiel 34 & 36 & 37. Go ahead and explain Joel 2:31- 3:8. I think the problem here is explained by Matthew 13:13-15 & Isaiah 6:9, whereas they have eyes but cannot see, and ears and cannot hear/understand. Your "church" has had 2000 years to add and subtract and give twisted views as to what was originally deemed as written. Go ahead and explain how the "house of Israel" (Ez 36 & 37) is now combined with the house of Judah, and they are living under a covenant of peace, on the land given to Jacob, under the rule of David as their king. Now I can safely predict that your explanation will be true "gobbledygook".
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Go ahead and explain Ezekiel 34 & 36 & 37. Go ahead and explain Joel 2:31- 3:8. I think the problem here is explained by Matthew 13:13-15 & Isaiah 6:9, whereas they have eyes but cannot see, and ears and cannot hear/understand. Your "church" has had 2000 years to add and subtract and give twisted views as to what was originally deemed as written. Go ahead and explain how the "house of Israel" (Ez 36 & 37) is now combined with the house of Judah, and they are living under a covenant of peace, on the land given to Jacob, under the rule of David as their king. Now I can safely predict that your explanation will be true "gobbledygook".
Instead of "gobbledygook", how about "I done with this nonsense"? Your views reflect myopic hypocrisy matched the acute judgementalism that Jesus condemned.

Or, to put it another way, "Physician, heal thyself".
 

2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Instead of "gobbledygook", how about "I done with this nonsense"? Your views reflect myopic hypocrisy matched the acute judgementalism that Jesus condemned.

Or, to put it another way, "Physician, heal thyself".
I don't know. The beginning of the millennium (kingdom period of David (son of man)) (Ez 37:24) starts with the judgment of the "nations"/Gentiles by God (Joel 2:31 - Joel 3:8), and then the righteous being raised from the dead to reign and be judges over everyone (Revelation 20:4). Yeshua's message was to "repent" for the "kingdom of heaven is at hand" (Mt 3:2), as in just "behind the door (Mt 24:33) I don't know, but Yeshua pointed the finger at the Pharisees for their leaven, which is their hypocrisy, and you rely solely on the Pharisee of Pharisees, the guy who is all things to all men, for your support. I don't know, but that appears to be a losing foundation (Mt 7:24-27).
 
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