If you would like to use the word genocide, make sure you use it in its right contex, I will explain the right context later in this post. You say that they were ordered to kill all non-Muslims, but then they were also ordered to take prisioner anyone who wanted to be a prisioner. Namely if they wanted to fight, then kill them (ie they fight you, you kill them) if they wanted to be prisioner and listen to their teachings, then they were allowed to take them in and then let them go. They do not even have to convert, just listen to the teachings, if they do not accept the teachings, they apparently are allowed to go, as long as they do not taunt the Muslims for their faith. If they do, they are to be killed.
1. Genocide was your word, not mine.
2. The requirement to offer sanctuary, if asked, is specifically attached to the statement that they had not heard the word. It's not clear to me in the passage whether conversion was required or not (though, if the did not convert, they would still be on the "kill them all" list; so even droping them and leaving them, they would be killed next time)
Again you are distoring the passage. They were to remove the pagans, not all non-Muslims. Pagan has a very narrow translation from what has been mentioned in this thread.
It might be arguable that Jews and Christians were exempt from the slaughter. I'm willing to debate that if you would like to support it.
Certainly the requirement for cohabitation included paying the tax to Allah. It seems to me it required at least lip-service to being muslim; but I'm happy to discuss that. Perhaps we should start a thread on that topic.
Again, the command was to kill pagans... I think you need to look up what pagan means... Last I heard it doesn't mean "All people other than the ones in your religion."
Looking up the English word would not be useful (BTW, it's also translated as "idoloters" which, under Muslim beliefs, Christians would be).
Good way to twist around the words. I asked would America step in if a nation was buring their female children?
And I asked what the point was. The answer is "No, we did not, unless you count granting 'favored nation' status counts as 'stepping in'".
They bury their children alive? Earlier in this thread you asked someone for proof of something "subjective" and I thought that was quite low of you. Now I am happy that I get to ask you... "Please prove the statement 'The Chinese bury their female children alive.'"
http://www.gendercide.org/case_infanticide.html
Are you going to argue that it's important that "buried alive" might not be the preferred method? Which is the crime? The infanticide or the method?
Also, what does this have to do with the Quran and the command in 9 to kill idoloters wherever you find them?
I am saying from the information presented this is a practice that the "pagan" groups practiced. Unless of course you know more about Islam than the Islam members... If so, please back up your idea with proof that there were pagan groups around Mecca that did not bury their female children, or did not do atrocities similar to that.
So "every Pagan everywhere buried their female children alive unless I can prove to you otherwise"? With that standard, no wonder you can't manage a plain reading.
Actually, yes... Or do you assert that burying female children is a good thing and should stay? Genocide means the deliberate and systematic destruction of a racial, political, or cultural group. They were "destroying" this group by trying their best to convert people, or killing those that did not want to listen to what they had to say. Or do you say that a society that was taught to bury females alive is a society to keep?
I'm not really interested in your soap-box of destruction of cultures... you are veering very far from the passage:
"when the forbidden months are past, then fight and slay the Pagans wherever ye find them, an seize them, beleaguer them, and lie in wait for them in every stratagem (of war);"
"Slay Pagans" doesn't sound like "overthrow their government" to me. Recall that the infants in question would be pagans.
The muslims are required to accept former enemies who listen to them, they do not need to convert to Islam. At least that is the message that is given in the passages presented.
It's not clear to me whether they must convert. There are other passages which would cover this and I'm happy to discuss it with you on an appropriate topic. It is clear in this passage that it applies only to those "who do not know".
On page 16 they talk about the "pagans" in the pre-Islam era burying their own female babies. It is not a stretch of the imagination to believe that there would be a society out there that buried some of their female babies. The only evidence presented agrees that the pagans buried their young, to dismiss it because of its source is pretty wrong. I do understand that history is written by the victor, but there is enough evidence to suggest that the pagans did bury their children.
You find plausable, a history writen by the conquerers, that every other culture throughout the Arabian pennesulia was burying babies?
You think this is the justification for wiping them out? Then why doesn't the Quran mention it as justification? Find me quranic support for your claim and I can at least believe that was the asserted reason.