Nada
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What I read is that every instance of a passage using some form of Greek word pornea is talking about prostitution. Every passage that uses the phrase, "sexual immorality," is speaking about prostitution. Every version that interprets pornea in some other way has misrepresented the true meaning of the passage. The depth of the issue goes even deeper if one considers that:
1 Corinthian 6: 9;
“9*Do you not know that the unjust will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators nor idolaters nor adulterers nor boy prostitutes*nor sodomites”
scripture
“* [6:9] The Greek word translated as boy prostitutes may refer to catamites, i.e., boys or young men who were kept for purposes of prostitution, a practice not uncommon in the Greco-Roman world. In Greek mythology this was the function of Ganymede, the “cupbearer of the gods,” whose Latin name was Catamitus. The term translated sodomites refers to adult males who indulged in homosexual practices with such boys. See similar condemnations of such practices in Rom 1:26–27; 1 Tm 1:10.”
scripture
refers to "boy prostitutes," and from their translates "sodomites" which then is construed as homosexuality.
What I saw in all your references from Strongs (which by the way, the interlinear NT referenced G4203 in Strongs) was the reverse purpose of translating Greek words by interjecting other translations apparently coming out of differing Bible versions. None of which has any support from the tools used to interpret the word, pornea.
For instance, why would 6: 9 use, ("neither fornicators nor idolaters nor adulterers nor boy prostitutes*nor sodomites”") the words idolaters, adulterers, boy prostitutes, and, sodomites if not to list separate issues. Why then does Strong's combine all these into one phrase to be defined as "sexual immorality?" Idolatry has nothing to do with sexual immorality. Sure the act of adultery represents an act contrary to God's image. As does prostitution; the kidnapping of boys off the streets forcing them into temple prostitution; sodomites (come on!) is just a cover-up of the real abuse of pedophilia; and then some versions use the word homosexuality. Wow! a real stretch of the word, pornea.
I must ask, why does Christianity insist on changing the meaning of the Bible?
So you think prostitution, in this sense, is referring to literal prostitution like today? Selling their bodies for money? Is that right?