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Three Days and Three Nights

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lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
Read Mark 16:9 again. It says he was risen early on the first day of the week. Not he rose. There is a difference. Was risen means the action was over. If he rose on Saturday he was still risen on Sunday. When the women went to the tomb before daylight on Sunday, it was empty. Was it empty for 5 minutes or one hour or several hours? Either way he was risen on Sunday morning. NOTHING says Jesus rose on the first day of the week.
 
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lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
Read Exodus Chapter 12 for information about the Sabbath It is part of the days of unleavened bread. This occurs at the time of the Passover.
 
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rstrats

Active Member
lostwanderingsoul,

re: "Read Mark 16:9 again. It says he was risen early on the first day of the week. Not he rose."




Sorry, it was a senior moment - I inadvertently left out the "N" before KJV.

BTW, how do you reconcile Luke 24:21 with a 4th day of the week crucifixion?
 
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rstrats

Active Member
lostwanderingsoul,

re: "Read Exodus Chapter 12 for information about the Sabbath It is part of the days of unleavened bread. This occurs at the time of the Passover."



What is your point?
 
rosends

rosends

Well-Known Member
lostwanderingsoul said:
Read Exodus Chapter 12 for information about the Sabbath It is part of the days of unleavened bread. This occurs at the time of the Passover.
Click to expand...
I read it. Other than the word "tashbitu" (meaning "you shall nullify") I don't see any reference to a "sh-b-t word which would indicate a sabbath. Please advise as to which verse mentions a Sabbath.
 
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rstrats

Active Member
Shiranul117,
re: "Also note that only once in one Gospel does Jesus ever say '3 days and 3 nights'".



How many times would you say the Messiah needed to say something before He actually meant it?
 
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rstrats

Active Member
With the year almost over, maybe someone new looking in will know of examples as requested in the OP and clarified in further posts.
 
Jayhawker Soule

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
rstrats said:
With the year almost over, maybe someone new looking in will know of examples as requested in the OP and clarified in further posts.
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Esther

4:01 "Go assemble all the Jews who live in Shushan, and fast for three days, night or dat. I and my maidens will observe the same fast. Then I shall go to the king, though it is contrary to the law; and if I am to perish, I shall perish!"
4:17 So Mordecai went about [the city] and did just as Esther had commanded him.
5:01 On the third day, Esther put on apparel and stood in the inner court of the king's palace ...

note: On the third day After the three days of fasting referred to in 4:16. "Three days" is the biblical way of indicating the passage of a short period of time.

- from The JPS Bible Commentary: Esther (Berlin)​
 
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lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
"Three days" might be a way of saying a short period of time but "three days and three nights" is pretty specific. How can it mean anything short of 72 hours? And let me add that Jesus said this three days and three nights would be the ONLY proof that He was truly the Son of God. So all these people who say it was less than 72 hours have missed the ONLY proof Jesus gave and are calling Him a liar. Sounds really Christian doesn't it?
 
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rstrats

Active Member
Jayhawker Soule,
re: "Esther"


I'm afraid I don't see where the Esther account precludes at least a portion of each one of the three daytimes and/or at least a portion of each one of the three night times. I wonder if you might explain why you think that it does?
 
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rstrats

Active Member
lostwanderingsoul,
re: "...all these people who say it was less than 72 hours have missed the ONLY proof Jesus gave and are calling Him a liar."


How do you know that they aren't merely saying that the Messiah made a mistake with regard to His forecast?
 
DennisTate

DennisTate

Active Member
rstrats said:
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didn’t include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights?
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Personally... I believe in a Wednesday crucifixion.....
burial in the late afternoon before sunset on Wednesday,......
the women observe the annual Holy High Sabbath, the first day of Unleavened Bread on Thursday......
they work on Friday and prepare the spices for his burial.......
they rest on the weekly Sabbath..... Friday sunset to Saturday sunset....
they go to the tomb on Sunday morning, the first day of the week but he is already risen.......
three days and three night from his burial... so Sabbath afternoon... Saturday late afternoon... before the Sabbath would end..... 72 hours in the tomb.....
 
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lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
Thanks DennisTate. You are one of the few who can count. People do not realize there are two kinds of sabbaths. The weekly sabbath and annual sabbaths. The Passover is the time of one of these annual sabbaths and it can be on any day of the week. When Jesus was crucified the sabbath was on Thursday. The early church was so anti Jewish that they refused to think about Jewish sabbaths so they pretended the crucifiction was before the weekly sabbath and made up the story about any part of three days and three nights.
 
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rstrats

Active Member
With the year almost over, maybe someone new looking in will know of examples as requested in the OP and clarified in further posts. And again, remember that the purpose of this topic is not to discuss how long the Messiah was in the heart of the earth. As stated, there are other topics that do that. However, there are some who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish figure of speech/colloquial language to try to explain the missing 3rd night, which would have to be the case with a 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection. But in order to legitimately say that it was employing common, figure of speech/colloquial language, one would have to know of other instances where a daytime or a night time was predicted to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could occur. I am simply looking for some of those instances, scriptural or otherwise.
 
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lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
You know, Jesus said that the ONLY proof that He was the Son of God was that He would be three days and three nights in the tomb. Isn't it interesting how many people try to prove him wrong?
 
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