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Three Days and Three Nights

Discussion in 'General Religious Debates' started by rstrats, Oct 28, 2012.

  1. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a "discussion" with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase "x" days and "x"nights was ever used in the first century or before when it didn’t include at least parts of the "x" days and at least parts of the "x" nights?
     
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  2. fallingblood

    fallingblood Agnostic Theist

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    No, there really is no documentation of such a claim. I believe the claim was actually started by Christian apologists, and really have no bearing in ancient Jewish ideas.
     
  3. Tbone

    Tbone Member

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    Three "days" was a Jewish idiom that could refer to parts of those days or nights, BUT the term three days AND three nights means exactly what is says.
     
  4. crazyrussian

    crazyrussian No stranger to this topic

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    #4 crazyrussian, Oct 31, 2012
    Last edited: Oct 31, 2012
  5. crazyrussian

    crazyrussian No stranger to this topic

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    Well said T-Bone. in my last post I illustrate two of the several years in question by the Christian world for when the Crucifixion event took place. Multiple time specific Prophecies point to 5 April 30 AD as the correct day and year of the event. That day and year allow scripture to bare witness to scripture with no need for the various inclusive reckonings to be applied which by the testimony of men vary!. Hope you enjoy the chart shared!
     
  6. Tbone

    Tbone Member

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    Jesus was born 9-22-4 BC and died 4-25-31 AD and will return,
    most likely on 9-18-2031 AD.
     
  7. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    Perhaps someone new looking in who thinks that Matthew 12:40 is an idiom will know of an example asked for in the OP.
     
  8. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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  9. Pegg

    Pegg Jehovah our God is One

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    An example found at 1 Kings 12:5, 12 tells of Rehoboam’s asking Jeroboam and the Israelites to “go away for three days” and then return to him. They did return to him according to the account ON the third day.
     
  10. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    Pegg,

    re: "An example found at 1 Kings 12:5, 12..."

    Those verses do not state a certain number of days as well as a certain number of nights.
     
  11. Pegg

    Pegg Jehovah our God is One

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    no, it states that they came back on the third day.

    Jesus rose on the third day.

    3 full 24 hour days does not have to pass for someone to return on the 3rd day. They would come at some point during the daylight....daylight is only 12 hours long....not 24.
     
  12. Shiranui117

    Shiranui117 Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
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    Testimony from both Jesus and the Apostles about when He rose:

    Luke 24:46
    Then He said to them, “Thus it is written, and thus it was necessary for the Christ to suffer and to rise from the dead the third day,

    Acts 10:40
    Him God raised up on the third day, and showed Him openly,

    1 Corinthians 15:4
    and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures,

    Matthew 17:43
    and they will kill Him, and the third day He will be raised up.” And they were exceedingly sorrowful.

    Matthew 20:19
    and deliver Him to the Gentiles to mock and to scourge and to crucify. And the third day He will rise again.”

    Matthew 27:64
    Therefore command that the tomb be made secure until the third day, lest His disciples come by night and steal Him away, and say to the people, ‘He has risen from the dead.’ So the last deception will be worse than the first.”

    Mark 9:31
    For He taught His disciples and said to them, “The Son of Man is being betrayed into the hands of men, and they will kill Him. And after He is killed, He will rise the third day.”

    I could go on and on and on, but I'll leave it there. He rose on the third day, meaning:
    -First day: The day that the counting starts on
    -Second day: One day after that
    Third day: Two days after counting is started
    [FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]"A short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though, of the first day only a few minutes after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day." Jewish Encyclopedia, Volume 4, page 475.
    [/FONT]​
    This is a practice known as "inclusive reckoning." You can read more about it in the following links:
    Three Days and Three Nights
    Orthodox Judaism: Inclusive Reckoning, forty days and forty nights, david rosenblum

    IOW, the expression "three days and three nights" is one that can fall into inclusive reckoning.
     
  13. allright

    allright Active Member

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    The four gospel writers all recorded Jesus said he would be three days in the tomb. Certainly they believed the account they gave of the time he was in the tomb fulfilled that prophecy of what he meant by three days.
    Now 2000 years later your claiming you understand what he meant by three days better than they did and their accounts really show he didnt fulfill the prophecy ?
     
    #13 allright, Apr 5, 2013
    Last edited: Apr 5, 2013
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  14. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    Pegg,

    re: "no..."


    OK, perhaps someone else will know of some writing.
     
  15. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    Shiranui117,

    re: "I could go on and on and on, but I'll leave it there. He rose on the third day..."


    But nothing in the scriptures that you referrenced absolutely precludes at least a portion of a stated number of daytimes and at least a portion of a stated number of nighttimes. I'm looking for an actual example from the first century or before that shows a phrase stating a specific number of days as well as a specific number of nights when it absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specified number of days and at least parts of each one of the specified number of nights.
     
  16. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    allright,

    re: "The four gospel writers all recorded Jesus said he would be three days in the tomb. Certainly they believed the account they gave of the time he was in the tomb fulfilled that prophecy of what he meant by three days.

    Agreed. But I'm afraid I don't see your point insofar as it applies to the question asked in the OP.


    re: "Now 2000 years latter your claiming you understand what he meant by three days better than they did and their accounts really show he didnt fulfill the prophecy ?"

    Although you didn't address your post to anyone, if the "your claiming" comment is intended for me, I wonder if you might provide the quote of what you say I am claiming.
     
  17. Pegg

    Pegg Jehovah our God is One

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    look at it this way, he went in on the Friday (day 1) remained in all day and night on the saturday (day 2) came out on the sunday (day 3)

    He said he would rise on the 3rd day and that is the day he came out...the 3rd day.

    I can't see the issue here.
     
  18. AmbiguousGuy

    AmbiguousGuy Well-Known Member

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    The issue seems pretty clear to me. According to your explanation, Jesus was not in the tomb for three nights but only two nights. Friday night and Saturday night.

    Where is the third night? That's the question.

    (I have no interest or opinion about the Matthew's quotation, by the way. I don't even understand why he'd be making predictions about Jesus, but the three-night thing seems pretty clear.)
     
  19. Pappillion001

    Pappillion001 Member

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    Now if only the 4 Gospel writers could agree on when those three days were then that would have been something to look at, but no somebody wasn't proofreading.

    I would agree though a day is any part of a day. Otherwise it is not even close to what is written and would have caused a great deal of confusion. Also of the existing documents that refute anti-christian writings I don't believe that aspect of the resurrection came under fire
     
  20. rstrats

    rstrats Active Member

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    Pappillion001,

    re: "I would agree though a day is any part of a day."


    And a night is any part of a night. I'm looking for some writing that shows a specific instance where it is absolutey impossible for that to be the case.
     
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