Two points that I would like to address.....
John 8:58 "Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” When Jesus says "I am" isn't he using the name of God as it was revealed to Moses in Exodus chapt 3 where Moses asked God for his name and God said, "Tell them that I am has sent you" So when Jesus calls himself "I am" the Jews knew exactly what he was implying and picked up stones to kill him. Is this one of the proofs that show that Jesus and God are one and supports Anthanasia's claim
If you consult the Tanakh at Exodus 3:14-15 you will see that God’s name never was...... “I Am”.
13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"
יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:
14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"
ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:
15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.
טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:
Shemot - Exodus - Chapter 3 (Parshah Shemot)
The "Lord God" is YHWH....Yahweh.....(Jehovah in English.)
It is translated in English to mean
“I Will Be What I Will Be”, meaning that God will
BE whatever he needs to be in order to fulfill his purpose. Therefore any connection to John 8:58 is a gross error in translation. Jesus said “I am” many, many times without ever indicating that he was God....that would have been blasphemy.
In fact he never once said he was God. He identified his Father as
"the only true God" and himself as the one he "sent forth". (John 17:3; John 10:34-36) He identified himself only as “the son of God”....there is no “God the Son”....the church invented that term, to promote this blasphemous belief.
Some nontrinitarian have quoted bibles that quote John 1:1 with a lowered capital G when describing Jesus. They translate it this way: "and the Word was a god" I think these bibles are poor translations because the interlinear word for word bible translates it this way with no article a and a capital G: This correct translation also supports John 8:58.
καὶ (and) θεὸς (God) ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος. (Word.)
View attachment 40448
This does not say, "and the Word was
a god"
If you do some research on the Greek word “theos” you will see that the Greeks were polytheistic and had no way to identify any of their gods individually unless they used their names. The Jews had long ceased to utter the divine name, so in order to identify the (nameless) God of Israel they used the definite article "THE" (ho)....look at John 1:1 in an Interlinear....
"In en the beginning archē was eimi the ho Word logos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi with pros · ho God theos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi God theos."
The word "the" is clearly seen four times in this verse. It is used to identify "the Logos" and if you notice the word "theos" (which is translated "god") you will see "ho" used with the first mention of God, but missing in the second. This is speaking about "gods" which in Greek, "theos" meant a "mighty one"...used in the mention of any god......elsewhere in scripture, it is also used with reference to those with divine authority....and even of satan the devil at 2 Corinthians 4:3-4.
This is clearly an error in translation perpetuated over centuries to promote a blasphemous belief that Jesus never once corroborated.
Do your homework.....please.