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Racism, prejudice and bigotry

lunakilo

Well-Known Member
Statement 1: Black people are genarally stupid.
Statement 2: Black people generally have dark eyes.

Are either of these statements racistic, prejudiced or bigot?
Are either of these statements NOT racistic, prejudiced or bigot?

Why/why not?
 

sandandfoam

Veteran Member
As with bullying, if the person on the receiving end perceives statements or behaviour as offensive - then they are offensive.
 

lunakilo

Well-Known Member
As with bullying, if the person on the receiving end perceives statements or behaviour as offensive - then they are offensive.
But are they racistic, prejudiced or bigot?

EDIT: if for example someone tells me I have blue eyes and I am offended, does that make the person who says it a racist?
 
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McBell

mantra-chanting henotheistic snake handler
As with bullying, if the person on the receiving end perceives statements or behaviour as offensive - then they are offensive.
To that person perhaps.
But then, there are loads of people who go to great lengths to be offended.
 

Otherright

Otherright
Statement 1: Black people are genarally stupid.
Statement 2: Black people generally have dark eyes.

Are either of these statements racistic, prejudiced or bigot?
Are either of these statements NOT racistic, prejudiced or bigot?

Why/why not?

Statement 1 is all three. Statement two is racist, although not negatively racist.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
Statement 1: Black people are genarally stupid.
Statement 2: Black people generally have dark eyes.

Are either of these statements racistic, prejudiced or bigot?
Are either of these statements NOT racistic, prejudiced or bigot?
While noting that the word 'race' is problematic:
  1. Racist: I know of no scholarship to suggest the 'stupidity' is a racial trait.
  2. Factual: dark skin is clearly a heritable characteristic.
 

lunakilo

Well-Known Member
I will give you a statement which resemble one that made me start this thread:

Statement 3: Romas steal

Is that racistic, prejudiced or bigot?
 

gnomon

Well-Known Member
What if we assume I have met many Romas, and all the Romas I have ever met where thiefs, would it then be ok for me to say "Romas steal"?

That would still be prejudicial and........oh, I know what thread you are talking about.
 

Revoltingest

Pragmatic Libertarian
Premium Member
That would still be prejudicial and........oh, I know what thread you are talking about.
If Romas generally steal, & this is backed up by evidence, then it's not prejudicial.
But to say all of them steal, that would be prejudicial.

Lame analogy time:
It is fair to say that black folk are darker skinned than white folk.
But it is not true for all of them.

Language is certainly an imprecise thing. So, when it matters, I'd say that most black folk are darker skinned than white folk in general.
When it doesn't matter, I'd state the briefer & less precise version.
 
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Klaufi_Wodensson

Vinlandic Warrior
By definition, both statements are "racial". You are taking a person's race into consideration when making both statements. However, the former is offensive, and the latter isn't. That's the difference.
 

Revoltingest

Pragmatic Libertarian
Premium Member
After decades of landlording over thousands of tenants, I have some general observations:
Bad tenants:
- People from NY & NJ....tis known as "area code 212 syndrome"
- Varsity athletes in football, baseball, & hockey
- Middle Eastern commercial tenants
Good tenants
- People from rural communities
- Varsity athletes in gymnastics & track varsity athletes
- Law school students....I know, whooda thunk lawyers-to-be would be good. They tend to be responsible, driven, & they understand what they agree to.
- Engineers (of course)....with one significant exception

One must keep an open mind though, since individuals will confound our expectations.
 

gnomon

Well-Known Member
The statement "Romas generally" still implies all.

The statement that theft is rampant among the Roma does not.

Just like the statement blacks commit more crime in America as opposed to the statement blacks comprise a disproportionate number of inmates in the system.

Here are my problems with these types of statements.
1) The improbability that anyone can accurately state how many Roma steal
2) The Roma, as a concept, is not a singular ethnic identity. There are subgroups. So what someone might experience in Italy after meeting a small group of Roma portrays nothing of the rest of Roma in Italy nor the separate Hungarian Roma.
3) The European nations have a historical bias they exhibit to this day in regards to the Roma. Here in the States we have a similar thing. Here it's the concept that blacks commit more crimes. You take a very short time frame and look at the numbers and one can say yes, "Blacks are being arrested for more violent crimes than any other ethnic group.". However, that is not equivalent to saying that blacks commit more violent crimes or even close to the more popular blacks are more prone to commit violence.
So, one could make the case that say in Italy individuals of the Roma are recorded for arrests regarding theft at a disproportionate rate but that does not lead to the conclusion that they are actually committing more thefts or that they are more prone to stealing.
4) Ignoring the rest of the data. In America minorities are considered to comprise the majority of drug users. The actual survey data shows that drug use, illicit drug use, is the same across all ethnic or so called racial lines. But media portrayal of drug use tends to focus on minorities which leads to a biased social perception.
 
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