Augustus
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I'll reply to some other stuff later, but just want to keep these bit separate for clarification
The "why" is that you have missed the point here. I acknowledged significant changes with the field of natural philosophy between the 17th and 19th C. I just think your explanation of them bears little connection to what actually happened, and contains some very basic errors that undermine your entire argument.
This is what you said:
My argument would be that science broke away from, or is considered distinctly different from philosophy because it acknowledges and accepts the fundamental reality that any philosopher, any human investigator is imperfect and fallible, and as a result, that fallibility must be addressed and mitigated if the pursuit of knowledge is to be successful. A schism occurred between Natural Philosophy and the rest of Philosophy because only those in this renamed category were willing to acknowledge and accept this fundamental reality.
Regarding the red bit, whatever makes you think that "philosophy" doesn't acknowledge human fallibility? This is a nonsensical assertion. It is obviously, and objectively false.
Philosophy is not a singular that can be generalised about and is certainly not simply ancient Greek Rationalism. The experimental methods became popular due to changes within philosophy (via theology). The question of what we can know, and the limitations of knowledge is a branch of philosophy: epistemology. Analysis of this aspect of our humanity is necessarily both scientific and philosophical.
Regarding the pink bit, again it wasn't that some people acknowledged human fallibility and others didn't. It was based on increasing specialisation in the 19th C: the disciplines that could be studied scientifically became "science" and those that generally could not (ethics, metaphysics, epistemology, ontology, etc.), remained philosophy.
While this was another period of change in the sciences, but was long after the "scientific revolution". Most of the changes occurred within the field known as Natural Philosophy before the mid-19th C name change. This is why I said "rebranding".
You are focusing on the 250 year before/after and saying "look! different!" then, with hindsight, backdating the name change so that the process is a split between science and philosophy, then you assign some imaginary motives to it to create a nice easy science/philosophy binary.
I'm saying that if you look at it without the benefit of hindsight, then you would have to acknowledge the changes mostly occurred in what was still philosophy, thus the motives you assign are nonsensical.
Note the use of quote marks on "good/bad"
You have pretty much argued that the only reason philosophy exists is because philosophers refuse to become scientists. The schism was caused by the truth seeking scientists escaping from the philosophers who refuse to acknowledge their limitations. One group is on the "right side of history" and the other the wrong side.
I characterised this over-simplistic binary contrast as "good" and "bad" because it is an over-simplistic binary that is more ideological than factual (narratives again).
What does "philosophy doesn't work" even mean? Logic doesn't work? Ethics doesn't work? Epistemology doesn't work? The philosophy of science and maths don't work?
If I want to know the size of Jupiter, science works and philosophy doesn't.
If you want to identify what it means to be virtuous or what constitutes knowledge, science can't tell you and you are stuck with philosophy.
That you continue to downplay the significance of the Scientific Revolution and characterize my position as "reading too much" into the changes that resulted in a demonstrably more successful investigative approach over that which was employed before can only leave me asking why.
The "why" is that you have missed the point here. I acknowledged significant changes with the field of natural philosophy between the 17th and 19th C. I just think your explanation of them bears little connection to what actually happened, and contains some very basic errors that undermine your entire argument.
This is what you said:
My argument would be that science broke away from, or is considered distinctly different from philosophy because it acknowledges and accepts the fundamental reality that any philosopher, any human investigator is imperfect and fallible, and as a result, that fallibility must be addressed and mitigated if the pursuit of knowledge is to be successful. A schism occurred between Natural Philosophy and the rest of Philosophy because only those in this renamed category were willing to acknowledge and accept this fundamental reality.
Regarding the red bit, whatever makes you think that "philosophy" doesn't acknowledge human fallibility? This is a nonsensical assertion. It is obviously, and objectively false.
Philosophy is not a singular that can be generalised about and is certainly not simply ancient Greek Rationalism. The experimental methods became popular due to changes within philosophy (via theology). The question of what we can know, and the limitations of knowledge is a branch of philosophy: epistemology. Analysis of this aspect of our humanity is necessarily both scientific and philosophical.
Regarding the pink bit, again it wasn't that some people acknowledged human fallibility and others didn't. It was based on increasing specialisation in the 19th C: the disciplines that could be studied scientifically became "science" and those that generally could not (ethics, metaphysics, epistemology, ontology, etc.), remained philosophy.
While this was another period of change in the sciences, but was long after the "scientific revolution". Most of the changes occurred within the field known as Natural Philosophy before the mid-19th C name change. This is why I said "rebranding".
You are focusing on the 250 year before/after and saying "look! different!" then, with hindsight, backdating the name change so that the process is a split between science and philosophy, then you assign some imaginary motives to it to create a nice easy science/philosophy binary.
I'm saying that if you look at it without the benefit of hindsight, then you would have to acknowledge the changes mostly occurred in what was still philosophy, thus the motives you assign are nonsensical.
You have characterized my position regarding Science and Philosophy as stating that Science is good and Philosophy is bad. Is that really my position? I would characterize my positions more as asserting that Science works and Philosophy does not. Actually my position is that Science is Philosophy that employs crucial changes, and any knowledge acquisition process that does not incorporate these crucial changes will be prone to human error. Now if you were to insist that I am expressing my self in terms of good and bad, and using terms like nefarious then I have to wonder why.
Note the use of quote marks on "good/bad"
You have pretty much argued that the only reason philosophy exists is because philosophers refuse to become scientists. The schism was caused by the truth seeking scientists escaping from the philosophers who refuse to acknowledge their limitations. One group is on the "right side of history" and the other the wrong side.
I characterised this over-simplistic binary contrast as "good" and "bad" because it is an over-simplistic binary that is more ideological than factual (narratives again).
What does "philosophy doesn't work" even mean? Logic doesn't work? Ethics doesn't work? Epistemology doesn't work? The philosophy of science and maths don't work?
If I want to know the size of Jupiter, science works and philosophy doesn't.
If you want to identify what it means to be virtuous or what constitutes knowledge, science can't tell you and you are stuck with philosophy.