I've read that in those times it was quite accepted for "men and boys" in the region of Ottomans and Persia (you can still find some remnants that in Afghanistan, search bacha baz or köcek and you know), but not so for two men. So are they the same topic? I'd say they aren't.
First I want to say that in my current understanding of these issues, I don't think that what Shoghi Effendi meant by "homosexuality" includes everything that people are calling "homosexuality" now. It looks to me like a prohibition against men playing the role of a women, in an imitation of procreative union. That's all. I don't see it as a prohibition against anything else that anyone is calling "homosexuality" today. I also don't think that it's anything that any institution should be trying to enforce now, unless it's the same kind of promiscuity that would call for action if it were a man and a woman.
Baha'u'llah says:
It is forbidden you to wed your fathers' wives. We shrink, for very shame, from treating of the subject of boys.
(Baha'u'llah, The Kitab-i-Aqdas, p. 58)
That puts it in a context of who can be a man's wife. The subject that Baha'u'llah shrinks from treating might be young men playing the role of wives in an imitation of procreative union. It might not be
exactly the same topic as the prohibition against men in general playing that role, but it's part of it.