King James Version - Simple question.

[Stephen Donovan]

It was first published in 1611 from the Stephen's Greek Text for the New Testament and Hebrew Texts which were more uniform and consistent than the Greek Texts. It is not perfect but it is the standard that all other English bibles are compared. It has been around for 400 years and the American version for 243 years. It became the standard for Anglo Protestatent churches. It surpassed the Latin Vulgate for bible scholars in the 18th century. It is the only book to have over a billion copies printed.

As more of the masses became literate the bible became the book of choice and many were taught how to read from the King James bible.

It is important because it dominated Western society and it had few rivals until the late 19th century. Many of the other bible versions such as the 1769 Baskerville (American revised King James Version) and the 1881-1885 English Revised Version (England revised King James Version) were only revisions of the King James bible.

In America during the founding of our country all our fore fathers would of known and been familiar with the King James Version bible. The bible has had a great influence in our country, people and laws; then and now.

Is the King James bible perfect? No, but its impact in Western Cicilization cannot be denied.

 

[Stephen Donovan]

He is write you are quite forunate to have such a knowledgable professor. If you were born in a country and were fortunate enough to learn the biblical languages such as Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic then you would have no need for any bible and or translation. You could then read the scrolls/texts/manuscripts as you and I would read any newspaper or magazine in our own native language.

However, the next best thing is to become a biblical scholar of these languages such as your professor. However, it is very difficult to become truly fluent in another language and learn all the nuances and the rules that govern that language. Every language has many similiar aspects that are common to all languages. However, the rules that govern the laws of grammar of that language are often different and/or contrary from one language to another. Such as in English the double negative is positive but in Greek it is emphatic.

At best any translation is a close approximate to the original biblical languages. They are however, quite valuable to all the rest of us who are not biblical scholars like your professor.

P.S. does your professor know Aramaic?

 

[URAVIP2ME]

i'm not sure why the kjv is so popular however there are some important mistranslations the main one as relating to christianity is the hebrew word almah used to describe mary the mother of jesus means an unmarried or young woman which the kjv translated as virgin thus creating the immaculate conception myth.

Isn't the immaculate-conception teaching that Mary's parents conceived her immaculately [ without sin] ?

Doesn't Romans [ 3 v 23 ; 5 vs 12-19 ] says 'all' have sinned....
If Mary was conceived with a sinless nature, then Mary would be alive on earth today.
Only those committing a sin will die.

What does Luke [ 1 v 34 ] and Matthew [ 1 v 25 ] say ?______

What word does the Greek have at Luke 1 v 27 ?_________

 

[e.r.m.]

Isn't the immaculate-conception teaching that Mary's parents conceived her immaculately [ without sin] ?

Doesn't Romans [ 3 v 23 ; 5 vs 12-19 ] says 'all' have sinned....
If Mary was conceived with a sinless nature, then Mary would be alive on earth today.
Only those committing a sin will die.

What does Luke [ 1 v 34 ] and Matthew [ 1 v 25 ] say ?______

What word does the Greek have at Luke 1 v 27 ?_________

Matthew 1:20 But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.

 

[LegionOnomaMoi]

i'm not sure why the kjv is so popular however there are some important mistranslations the main one as relating to christianity is the hebrew word almah used to describe mary the mother of jesus means an unmarried or young woman which the kjv translated as virgin thus creating the immaculate conception myth.

Isn't the immaculate-conception teaching that Mary's parents conceived her immaculately [ without sin] ?

Doesn't Romans [ 3 v 23 ; 5 vs 12-19 ] says 'all' have sinned....
If Mary was conceived with a sinless nature, then Mary would be alive on earth today.
Only those committing a sin will die.

What does Luke [ 1 v 34 ] and Matthew [ 1 v 25 ] say ?______

What word does the Greek have at Luke 1 v 27 ?_________

God I hate tepid reruns!

Wait! Don't give away the ending before we get the the parthenos part!

And here we go! The Greek is parthenos, and just like almah it means "maiden" which, in those days, meant "virgin".