I heard an interesting point raised in a podcast debate that I was listening to. Does anyone feel like responding to it?
Matthew 27:50-54:
If this actually happened, then why would the Resurrection of Jesus be considered special? If "many bodies of the saints" had risen from the dead and "appeared to many", then why wouldn't Jesus' resurrection be considered part of this overall course of events and not something special in its own right?
Matthew 27:50-54:
50 And Jesus (BE)cried out again with a loud voice, and yielded up His spirit. 51 (BF)And behold, (BG)the [z]veil of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom; and (BH)the earth shook and the rocks were split. 52 The tombs were opened, and many bodies of the [aa]saints who had (BI)fallen asleep were raised; 53 and coming out of the tombs after His resurrection they entered (BJ)the holy city and appeared to many. 54 (BK)Now the centurion, and those who were with him (BL)keeping guard over Jesus, when they saw (BM)the earthquake and the things that were happening, became very frightened and said, Truly this was [ab](BN)the Son of God!
If this actually happened, then why would the Resurrection of Jesus be considered special? If "many bodies of the saints" had risen from the dead and "appeared to many", then why wouldn't Jesus' resurrection be considered part of this overall course of events and not something special in its own right?