I'm having a hard time getting concise opinions on this, so I thought I'd make a thread to get some insight into this.
Why did the finalized constitution only incorporate protections for "the divine religions" or "the heavenly religions" (depending on translation) -- why not for all religions?
Was this an oversight, or was this a deliberate exclusionary tactic on the legislating and ratifying body to protect the religions they happened to like while failing to protect those they don't like? (If it was an oversight, how could it possibly have been so particularly written then?)
Do you consider this to be just? I mean, is Egypt interested in justice, equality, and freedom for ALL -- or is it just interested in freedom for the majority population? i.e., are you satisfied with mob rule?
Why did the finalized constitution only incorporate protections for "the divine religions" or "the heavenly religions" (depending on translation) -- why not for all religions?
Was this an oversight, or was this a deliberate exclusionary tactic on the legislating and ratifying body to protect the religions they happened to like while failing to protect those they don't like? (If it was an oversight, how could it possibly have been so particularly written then?)
Do you consider this to be just? I mean, is Egypt interested in justice, equality, and freedom for ALL -- or is it just interested in freedom for the majority population? i.e., are you satisfied with mob rule?
Last edited: