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Featured Did Vedas exist before The Bhagavad Gita ?

Discussion in 'Religious Debates' started by paarsurrey, Sep 8, 2016.

  1. paarsurrey

    paarsurrey Veteran Member

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    If so who is the actual author of the Vedas? Please
    Thread open to all human beings

    Regards
     
    #1 paarsurrey, Sep 8, 2016
    Last edited: Sep 8, 2016
  2. Aupmanyav

    Aupmanyav Be your own guru

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    Yes, Vedas are older than BhagawadGita. The difference in language proves that.
    See the list of writers of RigVeda hymns here: http://www.bharatvani.org/books/rig/ch1.htm
    I do not know for sure but perhaps such list exist for other Vedas too.
     
  3. Kapalika

    Kapalika EDM trancing gaygirl mystic
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    Aup is correct, but I would add that the Vedas is the oldest texts in Hinduism. The Mahabharata was written later. Also, according to some traditions the Vedas are have no author and are considered eternal truth.

    Personally, I think any scripture however true or authorless still by necessity of human limitation will not be totally pure and will be thus limited by human perception or understanding in the process of transcribing the divination or revelation. But this would also follow for even Christian, Islamic, or any other text.

    Even if whatever truth, god, what have you, were to dictate the perfect contemporary words to communicate it 100% precisely, any human reading it would still have this same problem from their own perception of it. Much more so the more they are removed from the contemporary writing of it.

    So I don't know if actually saying something has an author or doesn't, or even crediting who wrote it will have any real weight on the validity of any one interpretation, if we even assume X or Y scripture is divine in the first place.

    With the Vedas, if it had human authors their names have been last to the annuals of time, and any writers might of necessarily authored it in secret. Though I doubt this is so. I suspect that the idea that the Vedas are eternal stems from the fact that it was probably written over a period of time by many different people and it collected into a coherent piece of scripture that transcended any one author and revealed to those who read it truths that were considered eternal. Thus the Vedas as the vessel of this truth was likewise considered eternal and without author, not being distinguished from that which it carried (Dharma ect).
     
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  4. HarihOm

    HarihOm Member

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    Namaste,

    Veda was originally Oral, but even this is Apaurusheya it has no human author, its a discovery, Veda also mean knowledge, to access Veda one needs Darshan or vision.

    What is the date of Bhagavad Gita, Krsna Ji Himself said he instructed this science to the Sun God Vivasvān, Vedas and Bhagavad Gita have nothing to do with Dates.
     
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  5. paarsurrey

    paarsurrey Veteran Member

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    One may like to read #2 above. Please
    Regards
     
  6. sayak83

    sayak83 Well-Known Member
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    The extensive list of authorship of each and every hymn of the Rig Veda and the Yajurveda is available as a seperate ancient work called Anukramani-s by Saunaka and Katyayana. The ones for Samveda and Atharvaved has been lost. These texts identify the author of each verse of the respective Veda-s.

    The authorship implies the human rishi to whom the revelation came. The word apurusheya means "revealed" i.e. "not created by human thought". It does not mean that a human being did not exist to whom the verse was revealed to and who first recited it.

    Gita is recited later than the Veda-s but is also a revelation.
     
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  7. paarsurrey

    paarsurrey Veteran Member

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    Please quote the verses from Veda where it has been claimed and reasons given. Right? Please
    Regards
     
  8. sayak83

    sayak83 Well-Known Member
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    Quote what?
     
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  9. Aupmanyav

    Aupmanyav Be your own guru

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    Why does @HarihOm has to agree with me? We are comfortable together with our different views.
     
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  10. Satyamavejayanti

    Satyamavejayanti Well-Known Member

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    Namaste,

    The Gita is after the Veda.

    the author of Veda is unknown, some peple assume the author of the samhita are the rishi mention in the sukta/mantras. but traditionally the rishis are considered mantra dhrashta (seer/observer/discoverer) not rachna (writer/creator/maker).
     
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  11. paarsurrey

    paarsurrey Veteran Member

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    "The Gita is after the Veda.
    the author of Veda is unknown, some peple assume the author of the samhita are the rishi mention in the sukta/mantras. but traditionally the rishis are considered mantra dhrashta (seer/observer/discoverer) not rachna (writer/creator/maker)." One may like to see his full post of
    Sunday at 10:08 PM #10
    • Friend @sayak83 says:
      "The authorship implies the human rishi to whom the revelation came. The word apurusheya means "revealed" i.e. "not created by human thought". It does not mean that a human being did not exist to whom the verse was revealed to and who first recited it.
      Gita is recited later than the Veda-s but is also a revelation." One may like to see his full post of
      Thursday at 9:05 PM #6
    Regards
     
  12. Jainarayan

    Jainarayan ॐ नमो भगवते वासुदेवाय
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    Indeed! for how else would Sri Krishna be able to say

    sarvasya caham hrdi sannivisto
    mattah smrtir jnanam apohanam ca
    vedais ca sarvair aham eva vedyo
    vedanta-krd veda-vid eva caham


    I am seated in everyone's heart,
    and from Me come remembrance,
    knowledge and forgetfulness.
    By all the Vedas am I to be known;
    indeed I am the compiler of Vedānta,
    and I am the knower of the Vedas
    .

    BOOYAH!!! We win!!! ;)
     
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  13. sayak83

    sayak83 Well-Known Member
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    I am not seeing any difference between my and Satyameva's position. So...
    Gita refers to the Vedas several times. So obviously the Gita is recited after the Vedas. Duh.
     
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  14. paarsurrey

    paarsurrey Veteran Member

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    *Vedanta (IAST, Vedānta, Sanskrit: वेदांत) or Uttara Mīmāṃsā is one of the six orthodox (āstika) schools of Indian philosophy.[1] The term "Vedanta" stands not for any one comprehensive doctrine but for the divergent philosophical views that developed on the basis of a common textual connection. This common texual connection is called the Prasthanatrayi - a collective term for the Principal Upanishads, the Brahma Sutras and the Bhagavad Gita.[2]
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vedanta

    **"Knower" does not mean the one who revealed Veda. Right? Please
    Regards
     
  15. paarsurrey

    paarsurrey Veteran Member

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    I did not mean that you two differ with one another, rather to confirm it. Please
    Regards
     
  16. Jainarayan

    Jainarayan ॐ नमो भगवते वासुदेवाय
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    Do you have any idea what any of that copy/paste from Wikipedia means?
     
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  17. paarsurrey

    paarsurrey Veteran Member

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    Some people say the Rishis wrote Veda some say Krishna wrote it. Krishna is not even mentioned in Veda. Is he? Please clarify.
    Regards
     
  18. Terese

    Terese Mangalam Pundarikakshah
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    Pranam Paasurrey ji, Krsna during the time of His appearance in our Dwapara Yuga did not write The Vedas then, nor did Vyasa-deva wrote it, nor was it written 10,000 years ago, 18 million years ago or any number. The Vedas are an eternal truth, and exist beyond the conceptions of 'beginning' or 'ending'. I hope my answer was satisfactory to you :)
     
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  19. The_Fisher_King

    The_Fisher_King Ploughing my own furrow
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    If someone believes that Krsna is the Lord of all, then I think it's quite easy to see why they might believe that Krsna wrote or is the source for the Vedas. Whether he is mentioned or not (as Krsna) doesn't matter.
     
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  20. The_Fisher_King

    The_Fisher_King Ploughing my own furrow
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    Just want to say I really like the pic under your signature! :)
     
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