shmogie
Well-Known Member
Actually, no JW argument condemning the Trinity stands up to scriptural investigation.shmogie, can I ask you why it is so important that the trinity is true? What would happen to Christ's sacrifice if he wasn't God? How would the mechanics of the ransom be affected if Jesus was 100% human and not God at all? How does the ransom sacrifice work? Why is Christ called our "redeemer"? How dis redemption work in Bible times? Can you explain?
Why is such an important belief (the very nature of the God we claim to worship) essentially unsubstantiated in God's word? How did it become the very foundation of Christendom's beliefs when there are no direct statements to support it?
Jesus never taught it....the Jews never believed their God was a triune entity, and there is not a single statement from Jesus himself, or from his Father that they are one of three equal parts to God? To the contrary, there are many statements from Jesus and his apostles that show there was no trinity in their religious concepts. It is a clear adoption from pagan beliefs. Google pagan trinities and see how many there are.....
As far as the scriptures go....read John 1:1 in the Interlinear....
There are two "gods" mentioned in that verse. In Greek "theos" is the word they use for their own deities. These "gods" were all identified by their names, and collectively, they were simply called "the gods". The meaning of "theos" in Greek is simply a "mighty one". Because the Jews had stopped using God's name, and Jesus was also called by the same title "Lord", the only way to distinguish between these 'divine mighty ones' was to use the definite article, (the) especially so when mentioning them together. I have explained this so many times and posted the Greek translation to highlight that very fact, but it continues to fall on deaf ears.
Read it in the Interlinear. You will see the definite article is used for "the Word" (ho logos) and "the God" (ho theos) but not for the Word being "ho theos".....the Word was just "theos" without the definite article in the second statement. You won't see that in the English translation because it suits them not to mention it. You can see it for yourself in a word for word Greek to English Interlinear. It's not just in the NWT.
In Greek it reads....."In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God and the Word was god".
No definite article for the second theos, means "a god"...not "the God". This is how it is translated in many other verses. There is no indefinitive article ("a" or "an") in Greek, so translators must add it to make sense in English. How many times has "a" or "an" been used in NT scripture? To quibble over its use in this verse is ridiculous! The only reason it is disputed is because of the trinity, which was not even believed when the NT was penned.
No trinity argument stands up to scriptural scrutiny. There is inference and that is seized upon to push a blasphemy of monumental proportions. If Jesus is put in place of God or even on equal footing with him, it is a breach of the first Commandment (Exodes 20:3) and satan has been very successful in spreading his "weeds" all through Christendom. Getting the uneducated and unwary to separate themselves from the true God by substituting another "god" in his place. The fact that it is Jesus blinds them to the insidious substitution. (2 Corinthians 4:3-4)
Verses in the OT speak of the plurality of God, and the NT firmly establishes it.
When I have time, in the near future, I will prove this to you.