Christian - Baptism

[writer]

190 It is not uncommon to hear sincere religious folks speak of being saved by “faith only”. They say, “All you have to do is believe in the Lord Jesus Christ”. Their statement is designed to convey the concept that one is saved at the exact point in time when one believes in Jesus.
amen

Those who are proponents of “faith only” salvation need to understand that there is a world of difference between salvation “by faith” and salvation “at the point of believing.”
Mike Riley needs saved, or more salvation, by faith;
and to read the Bible.
As do all o' us

The Bible teaches salvation by faith (John 3:16; Romans 5:1; Acts 16:31-34; Mark 16:16; Romans 4) but it does not teach salvation by faith only.
The Bible teaches both

If you doubt that statement, then let’s deal honestly with the following observations:
Yes, let's

1) Saul obviously believed while on the road to Damascus (Acts 9:6). However, if Saul was saved “at the point of faith,” then he was saved from his sins while he still had his sins.
how else could u be saved FROM your sins, Mike?
If you didn't have sins, Mike wouldn't need to be saved from them

Note that when Ananias appeared to Saul three days after his encounter with Jesus (Acts 9:9), he told Saul he must do something (cf. Acts 9:6; Acts 22:10), “And now why tarriest thou? arise and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord” (Acts 22:16).
amen. This was addressed in post 187

2) On the day of Pentecost, the Jews were convinced that they had murdered the son of God, coming to believe what they had previously denied. Being convinced by Peter’s inspired message, they asked, “Men and brethren, what shall we do?” (Acts 2:37). Now, if they were saved at the exact time of belief, there was nothing else for them to do.
Says who?
Mike Riley?
CoC?

When Peter answered their question, he told them to do something: “Repent and be baptized everyone of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins….” (Acts 2:38).
Actually that's 2 somethings

The expression “for the remission of sins” means “in order to have sins remitted”. One cannot have sins remitted unless he still has his sins, which proves that their sins were not removed at the point of their faith or belief.
It proves sins can be before man as well as God. And that, evidently, Mike Riley, unlike Peter, prefers to talk about baptism rather than about the Son of God.
Peter didn't talk about or even mention faith in Acts 2 (it's mentioned in verse 44).
If, according to Mike Riley, per his own language above, those Jews came:
"to believe what they had previously denied,"
then that also means they repented (meta-noia) = changed their mind.
But using Mr Riley's lack of logic: Peter asked them to repent in 2:38, therefore none of them HAD come
"to believe what they had previously denied."
So which one does Mike Riley believe?

Conclusion
The real difference between those who believe that “faith only” saves and biblical salvation, is the exact point in time sins are forgiven.
The real difference between Mike Riley and the Bible in this regard is that the latter knows what it's talking about.
In addition, Biblical salvation has both beginning, end, and middle.
A permanent start; a developing result, which is also called salvation; and several aspects. As people, sinners, are saved from more than their sins

Since sin is contrary to God’s law (1 John 3:4), it must be God who forgives sin. Therefore, it is God who gives us the answer as to when sins are forgiven.
The answer is when God forgives them. As in 1 John 1:9
"if we confess our sins, He's faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins."
Faith is implicit in confessing, in 1 Jn 1:9, just as believing's implicit in repentance and baptism in Ac 2:38, and explicit in 2:44.
Becuz one wouldn't confess, turn, or be baptized into One into Whom one duzn't believe

God says that it is at the point of one’s baptism that he is buried with Christ and dies to his old sins (Romans 6:3-7).
Although related: dying to sins is one thing; being justified and forgiven from them (eg Rm 6:7; 3:26) is another.
Just as although related and connected: baptism is one thing; faith is another

Furthermore, it is in baptism that one’s sins are remitted (Acts 2:38) and “washed away” (Acts 22:16).
Furthermore, it is also in believing into Christ that one's sins are remitted (Acts 10:43); in confession that one's sins are remitted (1 Jn 1:9) and "cleansed" (1 Jn 1:9)

It is in baptism that we come into a relationship with Christ (Galatians 3:26-27).
It's also in faith that we come into a relationship with Christ (Galatians 3:26; Jn 1:12-13).
The 2 aren't mutually-exclusive.

And Peter says it is baptism that saves us (1 Peter 3:21).
And Peter, in the same verse, says that baptism is not a putting away of the filth [sin] of the flesh (1 P 3:21; cf Jm 1:21; Rv 22:11; 1 P 2:11, 22, 24; 3:10-11, 17; 4:2-4).
Which one verse alone contradicts Mike Riley's, or CoC's, dark apparent worship of baptism

Predicated upon man’s faith and repentance, God regenerates us in baptism so that we are raised to walk in newness of life as a new creation (Titus 3:5; Romans 6:4-5; 2 Corinthians 5:17).
amen (altho Titus 3:5 duzn't address baptism)

This is when God says He forgives us - not before.
Yes before. 1 Peter 3:21; Mark 16:16; Acts 10:43; John 3:15-16, 18; Mark 2:5; Exodus 12; etc

What Christians, for instance here debating on this site, HAVEN'T been baptized, or WOULDN'T?
Therefore one can ask: is baptism all the CoC likes to talk about? Even (or especially) to fellow-Christians? Has it really replaced Christ, or become a god to them, in their particular religion?
Lord Jesus, have mercy.
Thanx

 

[athanasius]

181 The bible says the following to help us understand that water baptism is the line of demarkation between those in the world and the saved.
That's certain. Although, as previous posters have mentioned, faith is intrinsically.
As faith is the source of genuine water baptism, and faith in the lambs' blood demarked the Jews in Egypt in Exodus 12 even before their water baptism in Exodus 14

From lost ----Baptized -----then Saved (1Peter 3:21)
Saved from the world, 1 P 3:21, which the water in Noah's generation destroyed; not from hell

From Naked--Baptized------then clothed (Gal.3:27)
Putting on the Lord Jesus Christ is in baptism, Gal 3:27.
And's also day by day afterwards, Rm 13:14

From unforgiven ---Baptized ---then Forgiven (Acts 2:38)
Since Peter in Acts 10 says that "everyone who believes into Christ Jesus will receive forgiveness of sins," and "Can anyone forbid water so that these would not be baptized, who have received the Holy Spirit even as we?" 43, 47;
to state that there isn't forgiveness until baptism is to arbitrarily, and counterscripturally, invent a false-legalism that duzn't exist in the NT.
As Catholicism and CoC evilly do.
Which also, with the rest of Scripture (since Ac 2:38 duzn't exist in a void or alone), helps to interpret 2:38 (and 22:16 if need be) to show that the baptism of the repentant, believing, crucifiers of Christ (2:23, 38) and of the infamous killer of His members (7:58; 8:1, 3; 9:1-2, 4-5, 13-14; 22:4-5, 8, 16, 19-20; 26:9-12; 1 Cor 15:9; Gal 1:13, 23),
in particular was for their forgiveness, not only before God, but before men, as a visible testimony of their absoolute and 180 degree turn

182 The point of (Romans 6:4) is that this is the point to which we access the blood of Jesus.
The point of Romans 6:4 is absolutely not that baptism is the point in which we access the blood of Jesus. This is also a demonic legalism of Catholicism and CoC, which, in essence, pretends and purports to restrict the unrestricted blood of the limitless Sacrifice and limitless Forgiver's unlimited forgiveness, based on whoever takes Him (Ac 10:43; Rm 3:21-28; 4:10-11).
There is no mention of "blood" in all of Romans 6. Much less 6:4.
Rm 3 and 4 precede, both chronologically, and Scripturally, and thematically, Rm 6.
Circumcision is related to baptism, Col 2:11-12; Rm 6:4, in that Christ's death is the genuine cutting off of flesh in the universe. Interestingly, Paul, in Romans 3 and 4, makes the point of saying that Abraham was justified by God thru faith, and that his saving faith was specifically, unequivocally, and deliberately experienced by Abraham before Abraham was circumcised. While he was still "in uncircumcision," Rm 4:10

We are buried with Jesus - Here we find the first time the bible says we are with Jesus
To the contrary: Saul of Tarsus was with Jesus from the second Jesus was with Him, on the road to Damascus, before he was baptized. As also whoever called on the Lord Jesus, in Acts 2:21, was with the Lord, by calling, in faith, before the second they were baptized in Acts 2:38. Just like the Spirit of Jesus was with Cornelius' and his friends and household in Acts 10 before Cornelius and they were baptized in Acts 10.
Indeed, the reason Peter gives for not withholding baptism to Cornelius and friends is BECUZ they had received the same one Spirit of God and Christ which Peter the apostle had.
The examples are too numerous to list here

and it is not until a person is baptized in water for the forgiveness of sins (Acts 2:38).
This flat, and insulting, falsehood, Biblically-speaking, iz addressed above

It all fits like a glove. -- Baerly
To the contrary: CoC teaching in this regard is absolutely transparently inaccurate and contrived

181 From Disobedient----------Baptized ---to be Saved/renewed (Titus 3:5)
Unlike Catholicism's and CoC's mistake regarding this verse:
Titus 3:5, indeed Paul's entire letter to Titus, mentions nothing of baptism, and nothing of baptism directly. The "washing" in 5 is "of," hence "is" regeneration. Which isn't the same Greek word as "born anew" in John 3 or "regeneration" in 1 P 1:23.
Although of course it's dependent on that regeneration.
Here it means a dispositional remaking. In the image of Christ. By Christ. Becuz of Christ in you.
Regeneration in John 3 includes baptism, but it is not water, or baptism, alone. Nor is there no regeneration until baptism. It's much like human birth involves both conception, and delivery (Mt 1:20; Lk 2:6-7). Conception isn't dependent on, nor nonexistent until, delivery.
Ask any pregnant mom

Seriously Writer, when you say words like "Duz'nt" or "Thru" or "Thanx" are you just using your own type of shorthand or do you really not know how to spell these words?

Oh by the way what denonimation are you? Do you attend a baptist church? What is the name of the Church you attend and what is its Christian affiliation? Just curious?

 

[joeboonda]

21 But now God has shown us how to become right with him. The Law and the Prophets give witness to this. It has nothing to do with obeying the law. 22 We are made right with God by putting our faith in Jesus Christ. That happens to all who believe. It is no different for the Jews than for anyone else. 23 Everyone has sinned. No one measures up to God's glory. 24 The free gift of God's grace makes all of us right with him. Christ Jesus paid the price to set us free. 25 God gave him as a sacrifice to pay for sins. So he forgives the sins of those who have faith in his blood. 27 So who can brag? No one! Are people saved by obeying the law? Not at all! They are saved because of their faith. 28 We firmly believe that people are made right with God because of their faith. They are not saved by obeying the law.1 What should we say about those things? What did our father Abraham discover about being right with God? 2 Did he become right with God because of something he did? If so, he could brag about it. But he couldn't brag to God. 3 What do we find in Scripture? It says, "Abraham believed God. God accepted Abraham's faith, and so his faith made him right with God."—(Genesis 15:6) ​

4 When a man works, his pay is not considered a gift. It is owed to him. 5 But things are different with God. He makes evil people right with himself. If people trust in him, their faith is accepted even though they do not work. Their faith makes them right with God. 1 We have been made right with God because of our faith. Now we have peace with him because of our Lord Jesus Christ. 2 Through faith in Jesus we have received God's grace. In that grace we stand. We are full of joy because we expect to share in God's glory.8 God's grace has saved you because of your faith in Christ. Your salvation doesn't come from anything you do. It is God's gift. 9 It is not based on anything you have done. No one can brag about earning it. 10 God made us. He created us to belong to Christ Jesus. Now we can do good things. Long ago God prepared them for us to do.

From Romans chpt 3,4..and Eph chpt 2 NIRV




​

 

[Baerly]

190
Since sin is contrary to God’s law (1 John 3:4), it must be God who forgives sin. Therefore, it is God who gives us the answer as to when sins are forgiven.
The answer is when God forgives them. As in 1 John 1:9
"if we confess our sins, He's faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins."
Faith is implicit in confessing, in 1 Jn 1:9, just as believing's implicit in repentance and baptism in Ac 2:38, and explicit in 2:44.
Becuz one wouldn't confess, turn, or be baptized into One into Whom one duzn't believe

What Christians, for instance here debating on this site, HAVEN'T been baptized, or WOULDN'T?
Therefore one can ask: is baptism all the CoC likes to talk about? Even (or especially) to fellow-Christians? Has it really replaced Christ, or become a god to them, in their particular religion?
Lord Jesus, have mercy.
Thanx

Baerly Writes:- One must understand (1John 1:7) is directed to those who were already Christians. In other words these are Christians who at some point were not walking according to the light of the word of God according to (1John 1:6). These Christains were told if they were not walking according to the word of God They needed to confess their sin and pray for forgiveness. That is exactly what happened to Simon in (Acts 8:20-22). Simon being a new Christian was confronted by a loving brother about the sin in Simons life (Gal.6:1,2). Simon was told he would perish if he did not repent and pray for forgiveness.

One cannot go to (1John 1:7) to say that an alien sinner can have his sins forgiven by just confessing. That is NOT what this verse is teaching. I have heard people teach this and it is not correct. That would be just a wrong as going to (GAl.3:27) and saying a person is saved by baptism ALONE. That is false.

If a person wants to learn how to become a Christians the place to go to is the book of Acts. There we find many people becoming Christians. 3000 became a Christion on the day of Pentecost and I find it very interesting that they baptized them all in water THAT DAY (Acts 2:41). Makes one wonder what was the hurry. Maybe the answere is found in (Acts 22:16). They realized that their sins were not washed till the point of water baptism (Acts 2:38) (Acts 2:16).The Ethiopian eunich was rejoicing ONLY AFTER BAPTISM (Acts 8:39).

The reason I am discussion water baptism is because that is the title of this thread.

in love Baerlyv

 

[Baerly]

What Joeboonda and many others need to understand is that the words Faith and believe (believeth and believes) all can be used in a special way. They all can be used as a synecdoche. If a person does not undertand what a synecdoche is it can be confusing. A synecdoche is a word which stands for the whole. We do this all the time we just may not know it. We may say,Bless your heart. We do not mean the actual physical heart alone.We are refering to the whole person. We are wishing the person well. WE may say bless thehands that prepared this meal. The word hand stands for the whole person. This applies to things in the bible also. Many times the bible says we are saved by faith. The word faith can refer to the whole or complete system of faith,or it can refer to and individuals belief. (Jude 1:3) uses the word faith as refering to the complete (or whole) system of faith. In this scripture the bible is using the word faith as a synecdoche. This is a very important lesson to learn.

Many times when a person claims we are saved by faith alone they have misunderstood how the word faith was used. It may have been used as a synecdoche. In other words the word faith would include baptism if it is used as a synecdoche. The same thing with the word GRACE. If it is used as a synecdoche it would also include water baptism and anything else the lord has commanded (1Cor.14:37) (Mt.28:18-20) (John 14:15.21).

in love Baerly

in love Baerly

 

[Baerly]

Writer says:-

What Christians, for instance here debating on this site, HAVEN'T been baptized, or WOULDN'T?
Therefore one can ask: is baptism all the CoC likes to talk about? Even (or especially) to fellow-Christians? Has it really replaced Christ, or become a god to them, in their particular religion?
Lord Jesus, have mercy.
Thanx

Baerly Writes : My friend it is not enough to be baptized. One must understand why one is baptized (Eph.3:3,4). One must be baptized for the reason Jesus said to be baptized. If we are teaching anything less or more than that which Jesus taught we are causing division (1Cor. 1:8-10 ; 4:6) (Gal.1:6-9) (Rev.22:18,19)

Baptism is the (narrow) gate into the kingdom and I have shown that using the word of God (Mt.7:14). Wouldn't this be something we would need to teach others if we cared for others souls? Wouldn't we want to shout it from the housetops? That is all I am doing.

You can call me evil,legalist and any other name you wish and I am going to still teach the gospel as it is found in the bible (1Peter 4:11). Just because you call someone a name does not make it so. This is just a diversionary tactic used by many. I pray you will study the word of God and teach it alone. I had rather be called friend or Baerly.

in love Baerly

 

[Baerly]

Seriously Writer, when you say words like "Duz'nt" or "Thru" or "Thanx" are you just using your own type of shorthand or do you really not know how to spell these words?

Oh by the way what denonimation are you? Do you attend a baptist church? What is the name of the Church you attend and what is its Christian affiliation? Just curious?

That is funny athanasius.

I think I have asked him before which church he attended. I got no answere.

I find it strange that the Baptist are called by such a name,but do not believe baptism is necessary to be saved. - Baerly

 

[Baerly]

Here a a few good bible lesson on baptism and forgiveness of sins.

Unanswerable Questions Answered #11

[SIZE=-1]The "Church of Christ" teaches that a sinner is forgiven of sin when he is ... In Acts 2:38, the people were baptized because their sins were forgiven (at ...
www.preachersfiles.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=3984 - 60k - Supplemental Result - Cached - Similar pages[/SIZE]


Did Abraham die saved?

[SIZE=-1]Abraham most certainly did die with his sins forgiven. ... If they are all true -- then Abraham's sins were forgiven by the blood of Christ on the day he ...
preachersfiles.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=4661&postdays=0&postorder=asc&start=30 - 73k - Supplemental Result - Cached - Similar pages[/SIZE]


Water Baptism?

[SIZE=-1]No true. Jesus had the power on earth to forgive sins. The thief on the cross was not the first person to have his sins forgiven by Jesus. ...
www.preachersfiles.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=424&postdays=0&postorder=asc&start=15 - 69k - Supplemental Result - Cached - Similar pages[/SIZE]

in love BAerly

 

[Baerly]

Writer says:-

Therefore one can ask: is baptism all the CoC likes to talk about? Even (or especially) to fellow-Christians? Has it really replaced Christ, or become a god to them, in their particular religion?
Lord Jesus, have mercy.
Thanx

Baerly writes:- I find that in (Acts 8:5) Philip went and preached Christ to Samaria. The when we read vs 12 we find these words,But when they believed Philip preaching the things concerning the kingdom of God,and the name of Jesus Christ,they were baptized,both men and women.

In vs 5. the bible says Philip preached CHRIST. We learn that to preach Jesus is to preach water baptism (Acts 8:12). (Acts 8) teaches us that baptism is necessary for salvation.

Would anyone think that Philip had replaced Christ with baptism? or had baptism become Philips God? No,But to teach the way of salvation according to the word of God one MUST preach baptism according to (Acts8).

The question should be WHY aren't people preaching baptism for the forgiveness of sins like (Acts 2:38 ; 22:16) says?

Why are people telling others that they are living as new creatures before water baptism? Especially when (Rom.6:4) teaches that a person walks in newness of life ONLY after baptism.

in love Baerly

 

[Baerly]

I found these lessons to be very interesting. I hope you enjoy them.

Faithfully Teaching the Faith URL: http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/236
Date: 04 Dec 2006
Excerpt: belief of error led him to teach a perverted gospel the curse of god would rest...
3. Taking Possession of What God Gives: A Case Study in Salvation URL: http://www.apologeticspress.org/articles/2546
Date: 04 Dec 2006
Excerpt: however it can be and has been perverted and misrepresented unfortunately...in love Baerly

 

[writer]

204 One must understand (1John 1:7) is directed to those who were already Christians.
One understands that. That duzn't mean unbelievers can't, or shouldn't, confess their sins for forgiveness, and become Christians!
What a demonic teaching!
"John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching a baptism or repentance for forgiveness of sins. And all the region of Judea went out to him, and all the people of Jerusalem; and they were baptized by him in the Jordan River, as they confessed their sins" Mk 1:4-5

Simon was told he would perish if he did not repent and pray for forgiveness.
He would perish. But not eternally. Since he had already believed into the name of the only begotten Son of God, Jesus Christ (Ac 8:13).
Likewise Ananias and Sapphira perished in 5:1-11.
But not eternally!
As Paul the apostle wrote in 1 Cor 3:
"he will suffer loss, but he himself will be saved, yet so as through fire"

One cannot go to (1John 1:7) to say that an alien sinner can have his sins forgiven by just confessing.
Yes one can. And should. And i do. Just like the new converts in Mark 1:4-5
confessed and were baptized simultaneously

That is NOT what this verse is teaching.
That IS what this verse teaches. Given that Jesus Christ (God incarnate) died to redeem and reconcile man to His Father. Not to make His (God's) forgiveness delayed, or non-free, or distant, in any sense

I have heard people teach this and it is not correct.
The CoC's not only incorrect: it's evil to push away for people what God offers so freely, so immediately, and so intantly through the supreme propitiatory sacrifice of His own dearly beloved Son

baptized them all in water THAT DAY (Acts 2:41). Makes one wonder what was the hurry.
The hurry is to enter into God's full salvation immediately

Maybe the answere is found in (Acts 22:16). They realized that their sins were not washed till the point of water baptism (Acts 2:38)
That misrepresentation and falsehood (from the abyss) is addressed in posts 201 and 187

The Ethiopian eunich was rejoicing ONLY AFTER BAPTISM (Acts 8:39).
Another falsehood and misrepresentation. Which indicates the source (Jn 8:44) of this particular CoC and/or Roman Catholicism teaching.
Acts 8:39 does not contain, either in Greek or in English or in any language, the word "only"

206 My friend it is not enough to be baptized.
Enough for what?
My friend

One must understand why one is baptized (Eph.3:3,4).
One Should. I don't write "must" like the lawgivers do. In any case,
"That by revelation the mystery was made known to me, as I have written previously in brief, by which, in reading it, you can perceive my understanding in the mystery of Christ" (Eph 3:3-4)
says absolutely zero about both baptism or that one "must" understand it

Baptism is the (narrow) gate into the kingdom and I have shown that using the word of God (Mt.7:14).
This is another example of the god of baptism replacing the God Christ (as mentioned in post 201) in CoC's particular, and peculiar, religion.
Although baptism certainly's "narrow" in this respect, it is so only because Christ is the gate (Jn 10:9), just like Jesus Christ is the way (14:6)

Wouldn't this be something we would need to teach others if we cared for others souls? Wouldn't we want to shout it from the housetops? That is all I am doing.
It seems to me CoC, and Baerly in this respect, seek instead to divide and deny genuine baptisms by saying they are not baptism unless the believer "understands
baptism" in the CoC way

207 That is funny athanasius. I think I have asked him before which church he attended. I got no answere.
That's ignorant. Or deceitful of you, friend Baerly.
I answered u

209 In vs 5. the bible says Philip preached CHRIST. We learn that to preach Jesus is to preach water baptism (Acts 8:12).
Philip's preaching included water baptism.
But if Baerly suggests that Jesus is only water baptism, or predominantly water baptism:
this too illustrates CoC's sad replacement god

(Acts 8) teaches us that baptism is necessary for salvation.
Baptism's neccessary for salvation.
But not salvation from hell (Mark 16:16; Jn 3:18; etc).
This is where Baerly's, and evidently Catholicism's, gross misrepresentation of the Scriptures and of truth lies

Would anyone think that Philip had replaced Christ with baptism?
Not me

or had baptism become Philips God?
Not me

No,But to teach the way of salvation according to the word of God one MUST preach baptism according to (Acts8).
According to Acts 8 (etc).
But not according to CoC

The question should be WHY aren't people preaching baptism for the forgiveness of sins like (Acts 2:38 ; 22:16) says?
The answer, as previously and often supplied to Baerly, such as in posts 187, 201, etc:
is that Acts 2:38 and 22:16 don't say what the CoC ignorantly, or deceitfully, teaches.
Nor are 2:38; 22:16 alone in the Bible.
But rather exist in context with the rest of Scripture, such as Acts 10 and 1 Peter 3:21.
"Baptism: NOT a putting away of the filth [sin] of the flesh"
cf Jm 1:21; Rv 22:11; 1 P 2:11, 22, 24; 3:10-11, 17; 4:2-4

Why are people telling others that they are living as new creatures before water baptism? Especially when (Rom.6:4) teaches that a person walks in newness of life ONLY after baptism.
A final CoC ignorance or deliberate misrepresentation.
Romans 6:4 neither contains, nor teaches, in Greek or English or any other language, the word or concept "only."
Az mentioned b4 here: spiritual rebirth, like physical birth, has the 2 aspects of conception, and delivery. He who believes and's baptized shall be saved, but he who doesn't believe'll be condemned, Mk 16:16.
Thanks

 

[sojourner]

My friend If sin is not a personal matter, Why does the bible say, The soul that sinneth (it) shall die (Ezekiel 18:20). That sounds personal to me.

You said grace does not come through water. Then are you saying that baptism does not save? Because the bible says baptism doth now also save us (1Peter 3:21). That is not my interpretation,that is what the word of God says

The word AND in (Mark 16:16) tells us of the neccessity of water baptism. I think it is called a coordinating conjunction.

(Mt 28:18-20) Tells us (the church) (each person) to go about teaching All things whatsoever I have commanded. That would include baptism for the forgiveness of sins according to (Acts 2:38 ; 22:16). (2Tim.2:2) is tellling us about the same thing as (Mt.28:20).

in love Baerly

John says, when he ses Jesus: Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.

The saving has already been done in the Christ-event. The grace has already been given to us.

 

[sojourner]

(Heb.5:8,9) -He is the author of eternal salvation to all them that OBEY.
Seeing you have purified your souls in OBEYING the truth.....

God heareth not siners; but if any man be a worshipper of God,AND DOETH HIS WILL,him he heareth (John 9:31).

And we are his witnesses of these things; and so is also the Holy Spirit,whom God hath given them that OBEY HIM (Acts 5:32).

He that feareth him,and worketh righteousness is accepted with him (Acts 10:35).

He that doeth righteousness is righteous (1John 3:7).

Could you show me in the bible where it says we are saved by one thing and one thing ALONE. If the bible does not say such a thing and it is only your opinion,Do you think you can get to heaven on your opinion when the bible teaches otherwise? (John 12:48) He that rejecteth me and receiveth not my words my hath one that judgeth him; THE WORD I HAVE SPOKEN,the same shall judge him in the last day (John 12:48).

Teach no other doctrine (1Tim.1:3).

Now whose interpretation seems to be off here according to the word of God?

in love Baerly

You have a singular way of reading and interpreting the scriptures. Personally, with regard to your last statement, I don't think that understanding and being saved is a contest. I believe that our reconciliation with God is something in which all humanity is meant to participate. We all "cross the finish line" together, as a family.

 

[Baerly]

John says, when he ses Jesus: Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.

The saving has already been done in the Christ-event. The grace has already been given to us.

Please tell me then why some will be lost as we read in (Mt.25:41-46), If Jesus has taken away all the sins of the world?

 

[Baerly]

. I believe that our reconciliation with God is something in which all humanity is meant to participate. We all "cross the finish line" together, as a family.

That is a good thought,but only opinion. Can you show me bible scripture which teaches such a thing? If not, why teach it? Doesn't the bible say to teach no other doctrine (1Tim.1:3)?

The fact is that there are many athiest in the world. Are you suggesting that they will be saved inspite of the rejecting Jesus as the saviour (John 12:48 ; 14:6) ?

Whosoever therefore shall be ashamed of me and of my words in this adulterous and sinful generation; of him also shall the son of man be ashamed,WHEN HE COMETH IN THE GLORY OF HIS FATHER WITH THE HOLY ANGELS (Mark 8:38) (2Chron.15:2,3) .

in love Baerly

 

[sojourner]

Please tell me then why some will be lost as we read in (Mt.25:41-46), If Jesus has taken away all the sins of the world?

Why do you insist on reading loss, condemnation and eternal punishment into a document that is so clearly about inclusion, mercy and salvation? Why emphasize those particular verses, ignoring the much more important teaching of that pericope, which is to seek and serve Christ in the least of us?

 

[sojourner]

That is a good thought,but only opinion. Can you show me bible scripture which teaches such a thing? If not, why teach it? Doesn't the bible say to teach no other doctrine (1Tim.1:3)?

The fact is that there are many athiest in the world. Are you suggesting that they will be saved inspite of the rejecting Jesus as the saviour (John 12:48 ; 14:6) ?

Whosoever therefore shall be ashamed of me and of my words in this adulterous and sinful generation; of him also shall the son of man be ashamed,WHEN HE COMETH IN THE GLORY OF HIS FATHER WITH THE HOLY ANGELS (Mark 8:38) (2Chron.15:2,3) .

in love Baerly

"My house shall be called a house of prayer for all nations." (Mk. 11:17)

"All mankind will see God's salvation." (Lk. 3:6)

"The Son of Man came to seek and save what was lost." (Lk. 19:10)

"Suppose a woman has ten silver coins and loses one. Does she not light a lamp, sweep the house and search carefully until she finds it?" (Lk. 15:8)

"God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him." (Jn. 3:17)

"When I am lifted up, I will draw all men to myself." (Jn. 12:32)

"You did not choose me, but I chose you." (Jn. 15:16)

What "other doctrine" am I teaching? Are you suggesting that God does not finally get God's way? Are you suggesting that God's will can (and shall) be thwarted by humanity?

 

[Baerly]

"My house shall be called a house of prayer for all nations." (Mk. 11:17)

"All mankind will see God's salvation." (Lk. 3:6)

"The Son of Man came to seek and save what was lost." (Lk. 19:10)

"Suppose a woman has ten silver coins and loses one. Does she not light a lamp, sweep the house and search carefully until she finds it?" (Lk. 15:8)

"God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him." (Jn. 3:17)

"When I am lifted up, I will draw all men to myself." (Jn. 12:32)

"You did not choose me, but I chose you." (Jn. 15:16)

What "other doctrine" am I teaching? Are you suggesting that God does not finally get God's way? Are you suggesting that God's will can (and shall) be thwarted by humanity?

I believe every verse you posted (but in its context). The verses you just posted do NOT teach that all mankind will be in heaven.

(Mt 7:13,14) MOST WILL ENTER THE BROAD GATE TO DESTRUCTION,FEW WILL ENTER THE NARROW GATE TO SALVATION.

(MT. 25) TEACHES MANY WILL BE LOST ETERNALLY.

in love Baerly

 

[Baerly]

sojourner writes :-
What "other doctrine" am I teaching? Are you suggesting that God does not finally get God's way? Are you suggesting that God's will can (and shall) be thwarted by humanity?

Baerly writes :-
My friend, your teaching all of humanity will be save, if I am understanding you correctly. That is universalism, I think that is the word.lol That cannot be true if what is taught in (Mt.7:13,14) and (Mt 25:33-46) is truth. And I do believe it to be truth (John 17:17).

in love Baerly

 

[sojourner]

I believe every verse you posted (but in its context). The verses you just posted do NOT teach that all mankind will be in heaven.

(Mt 7:13,14) MOST WILL ENTER THE BROAD GATE TO DESTRUCTION,FEW WILL ENTER THE NARROW GATE TO SALVATION.

(MT. 25) TEACHES MANY WILL BE LOST ETERNALLY.

in love Baerly

Then what do they teach??? You're willing to accept the destruction of your brothers and sisters, based upon these two bits of scripture? How can you think this way and then sign each of your posts, "In love?"

The parable of the lost coin is talking about what the kingdom of God is like. It plainly says it is like a woman who lost one of her silver coins, and then swept the whole house until she found it. If human beings are God's "silver coins," then you're saying that God doesn't search for the lost ones until God finds them???