siti
Well-Known Member
Why thank you Mister - I've come over all ablush...Cute.
But really, just having a bit of fun with words - as were you - indigent indeed!
More seriously, and to get back on topic, if the argument is that if "property ownership" is (as claimed by @wellwisher) a human right, as self-evident and unalienable as the right to "liberty and the pursuit of happiness" then why is nobody arguing for it to be applied universally? Why are proponents of this notion not returning the land they currently occupy to its original owners from whom, if @wellwisher is correct, that right is "unalienable".
Of course it is not an unalienable right (which is presumably why it wasn't mentioned in the Constitution from the get go, in fact when that - and the Bill of Rights including the 5th amendment that does mention property rights - were drafted, "property" would have included slaves. I'm sorry to "pee on your bonfire", but if that is the notion of property ownership that is being defended, then your argument (at best) belongs to an earlier century. In any case, the property rights defended in the 5th and 14th amendments are not "unalienable", rather, they are subject to "due process".
So again, I ask @wellwisher in particular, who says that "property ownership" is a human right?
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